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Re:Why no Roman industrial revolution? by unity1001 on Friday August 26, 2022 @10:38AM (#32608112)
Rome was a slave economy. When you are using millions of slaves for no-cost labor, there is little need for develop technology to improve industrial output. Being a slave society has been Rome's undoing. It started in Middle Republic period. It not only prevented industrial progress, but also killed the economy for everyone other than the richest few because those richest few were able to flood the economy with near-zero-cost produce and products, bankrupting anyone else. This caused slow concentration of entire economy, then farmland, then actual land, in the hands of the few elite and started the transition to the feudal economy.
Re:Why no Roman industrial revolution? by spaniard89277 on Friday August 26, 2022 @10:46AM (#32608209)
But the romans actually did innovate. Or at least put other's knowledge to massive use.

The scale of planning and engineering put into their infrastructure is just awesome.

It's not just roads. Their sewage systems, water treatment plants, siphons, aqueducts, pipes... IDK if any of you had a deep dive into this, but I watch some YT channels by spanish professors and this people were no joke.

And they seemed to have some research on materials too.

Re:Why no Roman industrial revolution? by beej71 on Friday August 26, 2022 @11:00AM (#32608394)
Fine. But aside from the roads, sewage systems, water treatment plants, siphons, aqueducts, and pipes, what have the Romans ever done for us?
Re:Why no Roman industrial revolution? by the_af on Friday August 26, 2022 @11:18AM (#32608654)
Well played!

"What have the Romans given us in return?" https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=Qc7HmhrgTuQ

Re:Why no Roman industrial revolution? by insane_dreamer on Friday August 26, 2022 @12:40PM (#32609688)
More importantly, what have they done for us lately? Literally nothing in the past 1000 years.
Re:Why no Roman industrial revolution? by DigiDigiorno on Friday August 26, 2022 @12:50PM (#32609858)
Irrigation? Medicine?

Oh, and the wine.

Re:Why no Roman industrial revolution? by SergeAx on Friday August 26, 2022 @06:47PM (#32613625)
They just took the whole wine industry from Greeks. No added value whatsoever.
Re:Why no Roman industrial revolution? by ajuc on Friday August 26, 2022 @10:54AM (#32608328)
They innovated in areas where slaves didn't helped.
Re:Why no Roman industrial revolution? by kalimanzaro on Friday August 26, 2022 @11:24AM (#32608724)
In particular, they didn't innovate in general technologies, like energy/information production/transmission, or metallurgy. Hard to beat slaves as a general technology, even concrete is no match.
Re:Why no Roman industrial revolution? by Someone on Friday August 26, 2022 @12:42PM (#32609732)
> they didn't innovate in general technologies, like energy/information production/transmission, or metallurgy

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Roman_metallurgy#Mechanisation:

“There is direct evidence that the Romans mechanised at least part of the extraction processes. They used water power from water wheels for grinding grains and sawing timber or stone, for example. A set of sixteen such overshot wheels is still visible at Barbegal near Arles dating from the 1st century AD or possibly earlier, the water being supplied by the main aqueduct to Arles.”

I think that aqueduct is an example of energy transmission.

“Ausonius attests the use of a water mill for sawing stone in his poem Mosella from the 4th century AD. They could easily have adapted the technology to crush ore using tilt hammers, and just such is mentioned by Pliny the Elder in his Naturalis Historia dating to about 75 AD, and there is evidence for the method from Dolaucothi in South Wales”

“They also used reverse overshot water-wheel for draining mines, the parts being prefabricated and numbered for ease of assembly. Multiple set of such wheels have been found in Spain at the Rio Tinto copper mines and a fragment of a wheel at Dolaucothi. An incomplete wheel from Spain is now on public show in the British Museum.“

I think that shows innovation in technologies (not as fast as happened in the industrial revolution, but it is innovation)

Re:Why no Roman industrial revolution? by kalimanzaro on Monday August 29, 2022 @06:59AM (#32636674)
From a related HN thread:

"Italy never got as large number of mills as Britain as the rivers flowing into Northern Italy have too large variation in water flow. That is part of the reason Romans could never utilize waterwheels to a great extent."

https://news.ycombinator.com/item?id=32629471

Re:Why no Roman industrial revolution? by csours on Friday August 26, 2022 @11:23AM (#32608711)
I worry that capitalism is using us in a similar manner.

Neoliberal capitalism has given us a lot of very cheap, very technologically advanced stuff. An extremely basic integrated circuit in the 1960s costs the same as an entire iPhone now, accounting for inflation. Accounting for inflation, automobiles are as cheap as they've ever been, and have many more features that work much better than they ever have.

But ... the edges wear thin. A Raspberry Pi (computer) and a Raspberry Pie (food) may be purchased for around the same price. A varied and healthy diet can be quite expensive (though there are deals to be found if you can travel to get them). Companies want to "add value" to food with extensive processing that increases the engineered taste factors to make us consume more. Housing is insanely expensive in many areas. Health care in the United States is not designed for any humans - not doctors, nurses, other professionals, and certainly not patients.

Neoliberal capitalism won't innovate on these areas. Are we just stuck with what we have? Certainly government mandates could change the game, but just like the Romans, people think the system is working because they can buy a smart phone and a gaming console and some cheap snacks and go for a ride in their fine automobile.

We can't see what the collapse will be, and we can't see what's next. I wonder how many Romans talked like this? I don't believe that our doom is inevitable, but I also think that progress requires specific intention, and progress can be very easily disrupted.

---

I have a thesis that the economic benefits of integrated circuit microchip and the economic benefits of neoliberalism cannot be distinguished. They both feed each other. I don't see myself putting enough effort into researching it and writing it up, but I strongly believe that thesis.

Re:Why no Roman industrial revolution? by radu_floricica on Friday August 26, 2022 @12:06PM (#32609208)
I'm not sure what you're complaining about, exactly. A raspberry pie is mostly service, not product - you get it for things like convenience and company and time. You can tell because the frozen version is much cheaper. And if you want to go further lower, you can actually make pies at home for pennies - all you need is a sack of flower and a bunch of frozen fruit. And capitalism even makes it easy for you to do it - if you decide it's something you really want, you can invest a couple hundred bucks in home equipment to do most of the work.

I'm sorry if I'm misunderstanding, but a couple of reads of your comment and I still think you're complaining that things go well :)

Re:Why no Roman industrial revolution? by idle_zealot on Friday August 26, 2022 @12:38PM (#32609653)
The complaint seems to be that things like raspberry pies are cheap while nutritious food is expensive. The market optimizes for that consumers want without accounting for invisible costs like poor health outcomes from routinely eating calorie-dense nutrient-sparse food. Likewise affordability of healthcare is not optimized for in the US; the incentives in that market drive it towards high but subsidized prices. Someone who is well-employed benefits from health insurance that make prices reasonable-ish, but anyone not subsidized by their employer or government is effectively left out of the market. This is not a state of affairs where a free market will sort things out. In the food case, the prerequisite of rational agents in the marketplace is not met; people are bad at making good long-term health decisions and will vote with their dollars against their best interests. In the healthcare case the real transaction is not happening between the consumer and healthcare provider, but between the provider and employers or governments and no party has incentives to change this (except maybe the government following the will of the people). This relationship provides employers a way to attract and retain talent and makes a lot of money for providers.
Re:Why no Roman industrial revolution? by _vdpp on Friday August 26, 2022 @03:14PM (#32611546)
I find a lot of the criticism of healthcare today to be misguided.

Why would healthcare be inexpensive? Go into a clinic today and there’s a legion of professionals who attend to each patient. Each of them has years of training, even the clerk at the desk.

They use a whole battery of expensive equipment. Multi-million dollar machines to literally see inside your body.

Every piece of tubing, bandage, needle, plastic fitting, etc is sterile, and used only once. They are made in a facility to exacting standards which is in turn monitored and supervised by another network of professionals with reams of policy dictating how the equipment is made, accounted for, and an army of lawyers behind the scenes as well.

The facility itself has exacting standards for cleanliness, emergency power, disaster-resistance.

The medical records are held in computer systems which abide by HIPAA requirements, again with a team of engineers and cybersecurity professionals ensuring that standards are met.

Healthcare is expensive because it’s expensive. The alternative is suffering with untreatable injuries or just dying, which we take for granted because we don’t see it that much anymore. We don’t have country doctors working out of their house charging a few bucks for a visit.

Are there inefficiencies? Is there waste, fraud and abuse? Are there greedy pharmaceutical execs making billions of dollars on the backs of unsuspecting pill poppers? Could we do things better or cheaper? I’m sure we could, but I don’t think there’s some kind of grand conspiracy to make us slaves to our employers vía medicine.

Re:Why no Roman industrial revolution? by csours on Friday August 26, 2022 @08:10PM (#32614223)
I'm not just talking about the cost, I'm also talking about the experience.

The alternative isn't a lack of healthcare, it's a compassionate experience that understands that we are people, not bags of money. Individual medical centers may live up to that standard, but the industry does not.

Re:Why no Roman industrial revolution? by idle_zealot on Saturday August 27, 2022 @11:24AM (#32620020)
> I don’t think there’s some kind of grand conspiracy to make us slaves to our employers vía medicine.

There doesn't need to be a grand conspiracy, just aligned incentives. The result is the same. It's also true that modern cutting-edge healthcare is expensive any way you slice it. In free market capitalism it is up to each person to bear that cost. This means that some people will not be able to afford treatment or will be plunged into crippling debt. I'm of the belief that if we can treat someone with a health problem then that treatment should be available to them either for some marginal cost or for free. Basic human needs can not be subject to market pricing as consumers are essentially under duress when making purchasing decisions; they cannot choose to forgo lifesaving medicine should the price be unreasonable.

Re:Why no Roman industrial revolution? by csours on Friday August 26, 2022 @02:16PM (#32610906)
Interesting that my comment sounds like a complaint.

The Romans had a huge blind spot because of their economic system.

We have a huge blind spot because of our economic system.

What is that blind spot? What's in that blind spot? We're in the last stages of the information revolution. The maturity of the information revolution will continue for as long as civilization does; we are continuing the industrial revolution even now.

The Star Trek Original Series and Next Generation both showed a "post-scarcity" society. What is most scarce in our society that prevents a post-scarcity society? What does an economy look like in post-scarcity?

We have Science Fiction, it's entirely possible that ancient Rome had futurists too.

Think of my comment about RPi/Pie in terms of economic revolutions. A society that can make a pie only needs a few things that are relatively easily gathered. An adult human could reasonably invent a pie in any age, from the Stone Age until now. That such an incredibly simple food may be underpriced by advanced technology requiring millions of cumulative person-hours of technical progress is simply astounding.

Re:Why no Roman industrial revolution? by ajuc on Friday August 26, 2022 @03:37PM (#32611821)
> What is most scarce in our society that prevents a post-scarcity society?

Nothing. We could have had post-scarcity society since 1950s at least (Haber Bosch process means enough food for everybody, everything else is optional and/or could be achieved by redistribution). Yet we refused to do it cause we value marginal improvements in our comfort more than survival and lack of serious suffering of others. We're already making things scarce on purpose (see NFTs and art in general). People want things that are scarce even if that's the only property of these things, and they value these desires enough to deny other people resources they need to live.

Thinking that this will somehow change in the future just because of some new technology making more stuff non-scarce is naive. We'll invent something that doesn't exist yet just so that we can have it while others can't. There will never be post-scarcity as long as people are people.

Re:Why no Roman industrial revolution? by WillPostForFood on Friday August 26, 2022 @12:01PM (#32609153)
>Neoliberal capitalism won't innovate on these areas.

Wouldn't you put the transition from agriculture based economy under neoliberal capitalism? We went from 90% farm employment to 10% while massively increasing output.

Tech folks don't think food production is exciting so they miss all the innovation.

https://www.vox.com/recode/2022/1/8/22872749/john-deere-self...

As to housing and health care, we don't have "neoliberal capitalism", we have highly regulated, captured, markets. If you moved to zero zoning in SF you'd start to have innovative building.

Re:Why no Roman industrial revolution? by csours on Friday August 26, 2022 @02:26PM (#32611014)
My comment on food is not about the quantity or efficiency - those have advanced quite well. It is about the quality and value.
Re:Why no Roman industrial revolution? by WillPostForFood on Friday August 26, 2022 @07:13PM (#32613818)
The quality of food is better in a modern market like whole foods today than what you got 50 or 100 years ago. Or if you like it super fresh, in pretty much every city you have organic produce at multiple local farmer's markets. Or look at restaurant options today vs even 40 years ago. Coffee today vs Folger's. Fair trade chocolate vs Hershey's. Access to fresh fruit, year round, via global supply chains. I don't know what hasn't gotten better. The worst thing about food today is abundance of cheap (value?) junk food, but that's an accomplishment in its own way.
Re:Why no Roman industrial revolution? by unity1001 on Saturday August 27, 2022 @05:35AM (#32617330)
> I worry that capitalism is using us in a similar manner.

That's the entire point of capitalism. Reinstitution of feudal economy, or even worse, slave economies, through economic system. In post Civil War US and post-emancipation Brazil, the slave economy was reinstituted through 'free market' precisely using capitalist methodology. Former slave owners kept wages low, which forced now-freed slaves to work for even less economic return than before. Because now the slave-owners did not even have to feed their slaves and keep them healthy enough to work. They could just discard them when they couldn't work.

> but just like the Romans, people think the system is working because they can buy a smart phone and a gaming console and some cheap snacks and go for a ride in their fine automobile.

I very much think that people don't think that the system works. Only those who are in or above the top 10% of the society. The rest are aware of the brutal reality of the system and they are unwilling participants in it for that reason. Exactly the same with later Rome. Which is a reason why Rome fall so easily and so fast - there was no difference in between their former Roman masters and their new feudal overlords as far as Romans were concerned.

Re:Why no Roman industrial revolution? by danenania on Friday August 26, 2022 @01:01PM (#32610052)
A lot of these are demand-side problems. Apart from a small slice of the population that is educated about nutrition, people actually want the cheap, tasty, processed food. In places where more highly educated people are concentrated, you actually do see innovation around conveniently getting people healthy food, farm-to-table, etc.

Yes, capitalism will happily cater to your worst vices. But then again, it will just as happily cater to your best virtues. I'd call it a problem of information and education, not a problem of capitalism.

Re:Why no Roman industrial revolution? by psychphysic on Friday August 26, 2022 @12:07PM (#32609225)
Similarly slave labour is not free in the economic sense.

You still pay housing, food and time at a minimum.

Re:Why no Roman industrial revolution? by kozikow on Friday August 26, 2022 @12:13PM (#32609280)
If your job can't afford you housing, food and basic healthcare you have it worse than most slaves did.
Re:Why no Roman industrial revolution? by aetherson on Friday August 26, 2022 @12:38PM (#32609657)
I'm sorry to hear that after you tried to move, you were run down by a professional slave-catcher, and had the letter "FUG" (for "fugitive") burned into your forehead! But I'm glad you weren't crucified and so are still alive to give us your hot takes on how slavery was pretty good.
Re:Why no Roman industrial revolution? by nautilius on Friday August 26, 2022 @12:16PM (#32609336)
Holy shit, man. What's your take on concentration camps? At least the prisoners are not homeless?
Re:Why no Roman industrial revolution? by kozikow on Friday August 26, 2022 @12:19PM (#32609381)
If Amazon or Uber workers were slaves they probably would be treated better.

Not saying that slavery is by any means even slightly positive. Just that economic system allows for extreme exploitation of people without alternatives.

Re:Why no Roman industrial revolution? by kleer001 on Friday August 26, 2022 @12:45PM (#32609786)
concentration camps were (are?) built to kill people, subject them to abject torture, to hell, it was not an economic end let alone an ostensibly sustainable venture
Re:Why no Roman industrial revolution? by badpun on Friday August 26, 2022 @01:55PM (#32610676)
Depends on the country. Soviet ones (Gulags) were created for economic purposes as much as for political. The economic idea behind the Gulags was to extract free slave labor out of population and basically free calories out of their bodies - the prisoners were barely fed, so their bodies had to burn their own tissues (starting with fat) to survive. Millions of prisoners/slaves doing hard manual labor for no pay and eating 800 kalories per day helped the country's rapid industrialization in the 20s and 30s.
Re:Why no Roman industrial revolution? by kleer001 on Saturday August 27, 2022 @07:30PM (#32624287)
I guess I had death-camps in mind.
Re:Why no Roman industrial revolution? by cardanome on Friday August 26, 2022 @12:53PM (#32609919)
Yeah, that is annoying. They should feed themselves. Maybe give them a small plot of land where they can grow their own food on the side? Let's call it feudalism.

People still romanticize the antique so much they miss that the medieval period saw quite a few advancements.

Why did the Romans not have an industrial Revolution?

For that you need a society that actually has incentives to efficiently use the labor available. Like in capitalism where you pay the workers based on hours. And the prerequisite for that was feudalism, the development of cities, start of manufacturing and so on. One economic system leads to another. Not easy to just leapfrog from a slave-holding society into the industrial age.

Re:Why no Roman industrial revolution? by visarga on Friday August 26, 2022 @12:35PM (#32609623)
- Water mills

- Steam engine - the Aeolipile

- Concrete - even underwater concrete

- Automations - see Heron of Alexandria

https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=DPu9OQpH6uo

Re:Why no Roman industrial revolution? by lr4444lr on Friday August 26, 2022 @11:57AM (#32609100)
Yes, the Roman military enterprise demanded technological innovation both to expand and maintain their conquered territories. But their productivity as the OP pointed out was severely hamstrung by the plentiful slave labor that conquest afforded.
Re:Why no Roman industrial revolution? by unity1001 on Saturday August 27, 2022 @05:30AM (#32617297)
All of those existed before Romans. From Sumeria to Indus Valley civilization to Egypt. If you dive into their history and watch related channels, you will find even more amazing things. What Romans did, however, was building them systematically and in a standardized fashion to bring them everywhere. That is an innovation.

However...

Aside from that and what advances Rome was able to do from their inception until the Late Republic period, Romans did not innovate as you would describe it. That's why the Roman history from Middle Republic until its fall is a story of slow decline and deterioration into feudalism.

Re:Why no Roman industrial revolution? by Cupertino95014 on Friday August 26, 2022 @12:05PM (#32609206)
re materials: google "pozzolanans"

they knew it worked, and Caesarea in Israel shows that it really did.

Re:Why no Roman industrial revolution? by zajio1am on Friday August 26, 2022 @11:12AM (#32608562)
Slaves are not no-cost labor, they have market price (i.e. capital costs), and you need to feed them (i.e. operational costs). Also, to get simple rotational power, you do not need slaves, you just need oxen.
Re:Why no Roman industrial revolution? by lr4444lr on Friday August 26, 2022 @12:05PM (#32609191)
They do, but at scale that drops, and unlike oxen, they're trainable for producing value beyond sheer energy.
Re:Why no Roman industrial revolution? by recursivedoubts on Friday August 26, 2022 @11:50AM (#32609010)
Rome was also a usury economy, which concentrated the wealth of the empire into fewer and fewer hands. People were often forced into slavery on latifundia to avoid starvation.

The roman experience is one reason why the pre-Reformation church was so set against usury.

Thankfully, we won't make the mistake of allowing usury to dominate our civilization again. :|

Re:Why no Roman industrial revolution? by mikepurvis on Friday August 26, 2022 @12:09PM (#32609247)
"A latifundium is a very extensive parcel of privately owned land. The latifundia of Roman history were great landed estates specializing in agriculture destined for export: grain, olive oil, or wine."

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Latifundium

Re:Why no Roman industrial revolution? by yywwbbn on Sunday August 28, 2022 @01:38PM (#32630252)
Wasn’t debt slavery abolished quite in Roman history?

I don’t think there is much evidence that free citzens were often reduced to slavery. Slaves were almost exclusively war captives or imported from abroad.

Re:Why no Roman industrial revolution? by xhkkffbf on Friday August 26, 2022 @11:07AM (#32608495)
Slavery is bad, but it's not no-cost. At the very least you have to feed the enslaved and also give them the bare minimum of care, if only to protect your investment. And then there are the societal costs of enforcement.

I would submit that any Roman farmer or businessman relying on slave labor would be overjoyed to purchase any device that would cut the need for slaves in half. (Or even by 10-20%.)

Re:Why no Roman industrial revolution? by giantrobot on Friday August 26, 2022 @12:31PM (#32609560)
A device that cuts manual labor only does so for a single purpose. A Roman farm would have grain fields, livestock, and orchards. Slaves on the farm could do all of the jobs the farm required. A harvesting gin of some sort would only reduce the labor needs for a small portion of the farm's output.

For mechanization to reduce manual labor on Roman farms they would need to switch to monoculture crops of a type that were conducive to mechanization. It would take machines being extremely cheap to beat Roman slave labor where conquests of neighboring territories were constantly bringing in new slaves.

Re:Why no Roman industrial revolution? by Attrecomet on Friday August 26, 2022 @02:18PM (#32610924)
That implies that other kinds of landholding did not have access to cheap labor - but serf, sharecroppers, and farm hands are all pretty cheap under the right circumstances.

More pertinently, the "expensive" farm workers of the industrializing countries weren't expensive enough for farming to be mechanized until the 20th century. Second half of that before it had replaced manual forms of farming entirely. Farming itself never was the driver for industrialization, but a rather late profiteer of it. It follows that farm slaves couldn't have been the blocker for industrialization, at least not as directly as you assume.

Re:Why no Roman industrial revolution? by spaceman_2020 on Friday August 26, 2022 @12:41PM (#32609717)
My completely amateur theory is that the reason there was never any Roman industrialization is because there were no innovations in literacy and information storage or spread. Aka, the printing press.

The lack of innovation in this field was likely because of class issues, especially the upper class wanting to retain control over knowledge.

There is a reason why industrialization followed the invention of the printing press, and not the other way around.

Re:Why no Roman industrial revolution? by lenkite on Friday August 26, 2022 @12:48PM (#32609829)
1 million upvotes for the right answer. The printing press was the single, greatest factor responsible for the Industrial Revolution. It contributed to an exponential spread of knowledge that led to a rising tide of industrialisation. Most ancient civilizations had their geniuses, mathematicians and engineers - but they couldn't pass on their knowledge permanently.
Re:Why no Roman industrial revolution? by insane_dreamer on Friday August 26, 2022 @06:42PM (#32613589)
Not so sure. The educated Roman elite could certainly record their knowledge onto various medium (tablet, papyrus, etc.). Sure, it wasn't disseminated to the masses (who couldn't read anyway), but it wasn't lost, at least not until the fall of the Western Roman Empire. The Empire had extensive written records on all kinds of things, particularly as pertaining to the military.
Re:Why no Roman industrial revolution? by spaceman_2020 on Saturday August 27, 2022 @04:45AM (#32617086)
That’s the thing - innovation in fields like metallurgy or carpentry usually come from actual practioners. A blacksmith in the north of England might have developed some new smelting technique but that technique would have no way of being transported across Europe since the blacksmith couldn’t write it down.

The educated elite mostly wrote about things they knew and cared about - law, warfare, religion. Learning in these fields often advanced much faster than, say, blacksmithing since the elite class was invested in writing and sharing and learning about them.

Re:Why no Roman industrial revolution? by insane_dreamer on Saturday August 27, 2022 @12:06PM (#32620459)
Good point. Many innovative projects (roads, bridges, etc.) were built by Roman army engineers who, while not necessarily elite, were certainly educated and could record their methods. So yes, innovation in areas pertaining to the military advanced much faster. What's surprising though is that improvements in steel production would have produced far superior weapons and therefore you think would be something the Romans would put a lot of effort into innovating on. I'm guessing that blacksmithing wasn't the type of grand project that required oversight/planning by educated army engineers. Or perhaps the hardness of the Roman swords and spears didn't make much difference compared to other military factors (discipline, tactics, defenses, etc.)
Re:Why no Roman industrial revolution? by dalbasal on Friday August 26, 2022 @12:05PM (#32609205)
IDK...

If you look at a very broad sweep of cultures at various times... the classification of social classes get very blurry: slavery, peasantry, serfs, cottiers, indentured labour, wage labour... Which of these best represents Middle Kingdom Egypt's labour structure? Is sharecropping the same as medieval european peasantry?

The definition or labeling of these labour class structures don't tell you much about their economic implications. Slaves don't necessarily cost less than sharecroppers, serfs or tribesman. That doesn't mean it doesn't have implications, but they are complicated and relative to the specific of that system.

I just don't buy this linear extrapolation from A to B.

Re:Why no Roman industrial revolution? by ladyattis on Friday August 26, 2022 @10:51AM (#32608273)
It's more complex than that. The cost of slaves is non-zero regardless of how you shoulder the burden of them; feeding, keeping them in line, giving them tools for their tasks, and so forth. What would've excluded the use of early steam engines for them would've been their higher cost versus their potential output.

Plus, industrialization didn't start with the steam engine, it started with the water wheel and windmill. Whether it was grinding grain, cutting wood, or even running power hammers (some smithies were found around rivers), the industrialization effort before the steam engine was nearly three or four hundred years earlier than the official starting of the late 18th century as told in popular narratives. In fact, I believe there's evidence of industrialization in Europe happening as early as the 11th century in some countries (again, windmills and water wheels running milling and other labor intensive operations).

Another problem with the Roman economy was the lack of complex financial arrangements and instruments. There wasn't any conception of the modern loan or corporate bonds in their world which are integral to the acceleration of industrialization and the growth of capitalism. Rome basically couldn't industrialize because its people and its norms were incongruent with the possibility. And even if some ancient engineer magically did create a simple two stroke engine, there wouldn't be any incentive to invest as to produce them with regularity. At most, they would've been a curiosity of the wealthy with little usage beyond some minor conveniences.

Re:Why no Roman industrial revolution? by w3ll_w3ll_w3ll on Friday August 26, 2022 @11:49AM (#32609001)
"And even if some ancient engineer magically did create a simple two stroke engine, there wouldn't be any incentive to invest as to produce them with regularity. At most, they would've been a curiosity of the wealthy with little usage beyond some minor conveniences."

To confirm this, ancient greeks invented a simple steam turbine, and was regarded as a "party trick".

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Aeolipile

Re:Why no Roman industrial revolution? by Aunche on Friday August 26, 2022 @11:14AM (#32608591)
The Romans also didn't have paper or a printing presses, so knowledge only circulated among a relatively small population of elites.
Re:Why no Roman industrial revolution? by ladyattis on Friday August 26, 2022 @11:36AM (#32608859)
Yep, it's a problem that couldn't be solved in Rome as it lacked many essential tools that the so-called Industrial Revolution depended upon. I can't imagine Rome or Sassanid Persia achieving such an industrial breakthrough.
Re:Why no Roman industrial revolution? by insane_dreamer on Friday August 26, 2022 @06:46PM (#32613618)
But was that such a big factor? After all, most of the population even in 17thC England was illiterate. Industrial innovation was, at least initially, primarily driven by a small educated elite.
Re:Why no Roman industrial revolution? by pookha on Friday August 26, 2022 @11:35AM (#32608844)
Why would complex financial agreements keep the Romans from large scale automation? The motivation for something like an industrial revolution (automation) is just connectivity within an economy. If I know that the people on this island are paying 3x more for Roman ketchup than I will make 10x more ketchup and sell it for a profit on that island. I have a hard time believing that this wasn't happening all the time in Rome...The Romans had modularized home construction so that they could scale and that doesn't happen without financial incentives and some level of an industrial revolution.

Rome's problem was always crony captilism and the fact that any Voltaire's that might have existed would have been violently executed by the state. Without freedom of thought you have no Industrial Revolution.

Re:Why no Roman industrial revolution? by notahacker on Friday August 26, 2022 @12:17PM (#32609351)
If the large scale automation involves technology research and Colosseum-sized capital investments like the Industrial Revolution did, you either need the state or its wealthiest citizens to be interested, or complex financial arrangements for the people that are interested in pursuing that to be able to raise funds

A lot of Rome's more ingenious feats of engineering were geared towards military uses or grand public works in the name of Emperors and aristocrats. There wasn't really the same infrastructure for smart engineers that dreamed they could become wealthy from researching and building a new process for making garments at a lower cost (and they were missing lots of intermediate improvements the British had). Ancient Rome had more freedom of thought than, say, modern China, but a lot less entrepreneurial culture.

Re:Why no Roman industrial revolution? by ladyattis on Friday August 26, 2022 @01:35PM (#32610476)
>Why would complex financial agreements keep the Romans from large scale automation?

Because the ability to amortize your costs is a boon for outpacing smaller firms. Basically, the more cash you can get your hands on that you can defer the lump sum payment on the more you can build out and thus the more you can produce. It basically becomes a positive feedback loop (this includes state subsidies indirect and direct which I'll leave as a generalized foundation for the sake of a clearer argument).

>The Romans had modularized home construction so that they could scale and that doesn't happen without financial incentives and some level of an industrial revolution.

Modularity was born out of the immediate demand for the product (housing). Note that modern, capitalist, economies build on the basis of volume whether it's housing, smart phones, clothes, and so on. And it can do this due to the fact that costs are amortized over the payment of debt along with the state subsidization as mentioned. Essentially, capitalism fuels itself through debt and state based subsidies (ex. interstate highways subsidize trucking yielding higher profits than would be possible if interstate highways were wholly private). This includes the inducement of markets (ex. prior to the trans-continental railroad the US markets were regional at best and most international trade was by sea for commodities such as cotton, gold, or ores).

Also, Roman upper class had no social need to turn their profits into more profits. They would often build themselves villas, have lavish feasts, and many other temporary luxuries in their place as their social standing was more based in that than in sheer monetary/accounting wealth.

>Rome's problem was always crony capitalism and the fact that any Voltaire's that might have existed would have been violently executed by the state. Without freedom of thought you have no Industrial Revolution.

This here is your primary error, capitalism did not exist prior to the the 17th century (merchant capitalism) at the earliest. Yes, there were loans but nothing to the complexity or legal arrangements that even a modern small business loan has in terms of legal and social dimensions. Today, debts can be carried by corporate entities. In the past though, loans were only to be held by the person or people who agreed to them. It was a rare concept that loans or debts could be owned by someone else (ex. one nation conquering another taking on their debts which is a new concept) which is an important construct for financial capitalism to emerge from industrial capitalism.

Re:Why no Roman industrial revolution? by notahacker on Friday August 26, 2022 @11:18AM (#32608645)
Agreed. It's also true that the early Industrial Revolution cotton mills used slave-picked cotton, because although millions of slaves continued to exist and their produce was imported even after slavery itself was banned in Britain, slave labour couldn't possibly compete with industrial mills in output of finished goods. (And not just because the early mill workers often earned little more than the cost of procuring, securing and covering the subsistence of slaves)

The UK had the tech to build mills and the financial system to fund the capital costs of building them though (and a larger, more global market to sell mass produced cotton to)

Re:Why no Roman industrial revolution? by dr_dshiv on Friday August 26, 2022 @11:33AM (#32608814)
> There wasn't any conception of the modern loan or corporate bonds in their world which are integral to the acceleration of industrialization and the growth of capitalism

Yes! Great theory. Financial innovation seems as big a driver of industrialization as the discovery of coal or oil.

Re:Why no Roman industrial revolution? by onlyrealcuzzo on Friday August 26, 2022 @11:12AM (#32608566)
Slaves aren't free.

I would imagine that an oversupply of laborers (i.e. too many people, not enough places for them to be productive) was a bigger factor.

If you read A Farewell to Alms - it has a pretty convincing argument that the industrial revolution only happened because England ran out of land and birth rates declined and that, combined with thriving merchant and textile and finance industries, led to a shortage of labor - which led to innovation.

Re:Why no Roman industrial revolution? by lazyier on Friday August 26, 2022 @11:18AM (#32608641)
Trying to point out single factor is a exercise in stupidity.

Time matters, places matter, culture matters, food, existing technology, technological connections with other regions, math, scientific progress, etc etc.

For example you need to be able to make blueprints. To make blueprints you need the math technology, the printing technology, and drafting technology, and the language necessary to all be developed first.

There are hundreds of thousands of different variables. Probably millions. More probably trillions.

None of them aligned for the Romans. All of them aligned for coal mining industry in Britain.

Re:Why no Roman industrial revolution? by onlyrealcuzzo on Friday August 26, 2022 @11:28AM (#32608769)
> There are hundreds of thousands of different variables. Probably millions. More probably trillions.

Obviously. The point of the book was to highlight the major factors.

> None of them aligned for the Romans. All of them aligned for coal mining industry in Britain.

> Trying to point out single factor is a exercise in stupidity.

Are you saying the coal mining industry is the cause? Because the industrial revolution leads to the explosion of the coal mining industry, not the other way around.

Why do you need so much coal? For steam engines.

Why do you need steam engines? Because people and animals aren't enough any more.

Re:Why no Roman industrial revolution? by origin_path on Friday August 26, 2022 @11:34AM (#32608831)
The article argues it was the other way around - that pumping water out of mines was the use case that allowed steam engines to be funded and improved to the point that they could be used for other things.
Re:Why no Roman industrial revolution? by onlyrealcuzzo on Friday August 26, 2022 @11:51AM (#32609023)
This is really interesting! And it's missing from A Farewell to Alms (IIRC).

It seems the textile industry and the train are the large drivers that demand more coal. But it doesn't mention the water pumping problem or the atmospheric steam engine.

That being said - assuming you have an abundance of "Big Burly Men and Daft Animals" - as the article put it - I'm skeptical the steam engine would've found a viable use.

Assuming England hadn't run out of forested land - they wouldn't have been extracting so much coal.

I still think the key points from A Farewell to Alms stand - but this is a super interesting nugget that should've made the book (if it didn't).

Re:Why no Roman industrial revolution? by GolfPopper on Saturday August 27, 2022 @10:00AM (#32619110)
The British documentary series Connections (three series, one in 1978 and the others in the 1990s) do an amazing job of showing all the strange and different paths that led to our modern world.
Re:Why no Roman industrial revolution? by insane_dreamer on Friday August 26, 2022 @06:43PM (#32613599)
I think it was the British textile industry that was the primary driver of industrialization (of course it used coal to power machines to do the work)
Re:Why no Roman industrial revolution? by throwaway6734 on Friday August 26, 2022 @11:32AM (#32608806)
They are when you're conquering your neighbors. Massive Roman expansion led to a huge influx of slave labor. When Rome stop expanding the number of incoming slaves decreases and the value of slaves went up. Later on when Rome was hit by plagues they suffered from a lack of laborers to work the fields and staff the army.

(Basing this all on the history of Rome podcast)

Re:Why no Roman industrial revolution? by kalimanzaro on Friday August 26, 2022 @11:20AM (#32608677)
Analogous to the British industrial revolution I suppose, where the relative cheapness of coal and iron versus labour is considered critical.
Re:Why no Roman industrial revolution? by azernik on Friday August 26, 2022 @10:49AM (#32608258)
The United States was a slave economy too, and still industrialized. That is not a sufficient explanation for Rome.
Re:Why no Roman industrial revolution? by bdw5204 on Friday August 26, 2022 @11:10AM (#32608532)
The US was a slave economy in the south and the south did not industrialize until after slavery was abolished. That was a big part of why the south's political power relative to the north was weakening before the Civil War, was a big part of why the south eventually lost the war (they had the more competent generals and their army fought better but the north just had far more people and far more ability to keep its army supplied) and was also a big part of why the north was the stronger region economically long after the war.

If the south hadn't gotten paranoid that Lincoln was going to take their slaves away (he wasn't), they might still have slavery because the slave system meant that the southern elite didn't have to do any work whatsoever (which is basically the gist of why Calhoun called slavery a "positive good"). Sure, they weren't ever going to be as rich as the northern tycoons but they lived far more comfortable lives and didn't see any reason to change that. The north had given up slavery because, in the late 1700s before the cotton gin, it seemed like it wasn't going to be economically viable in the future and most of the founding generation viewed it as a "necessary evil" and genuinely wanted to get rid of it as soon as they could but felt they couldn't (Jefferson, a slaveowner who owned slaves he wanted to free but couldn't because he was always deep in debt, is probably the most famous example of this point of view). Northerners also believed in the ideal of the self-sufficient family farmer and (especially in New England) a Calvinist work ethic. When you regard leisure as a sin, you don't have as much interest in being freed from having to work.

In short, I think the slave economy is a sufficient explanation for why Rome didn't industrialize. When you have tons of slaves and the republic/empire was always fighting more wars to get more slaves, why would you need machines? Especially when the machines would likely require free men to do work to maintain them.

Re:Why no Roman industrial revolution? by GolfPopper on Saturday August 27, 2022 @11:53AM (#32620326)
>they had the more competent generals and their army fought better

That's a pretty strong claim. Can you share your source?

My impression has always been that Southern leadership (including generals) spent most of the war LARPing, without any real understanding of how badly things could go for them personally, with their forces having no particular tactical advantages advantage over the North.

Re:Why no Roman industrial revolution? by imbnwa on Friday August 26, 2022 @06:16PM (#32613380)
Good sources for civil war motivations and conditions?
Re:Why no Roman industrial revolution? by bdw5204 on Saturday August 27, 2022 @11:05AM (#32619811)
Much of my understanding of pro-slavery thought comes from Calhoun: American Heretic by Robert Elder. Calhoun was dead by the time of the war but he was the south's most important intellectual and he was at the center of American politics from the War of 1812 that he helped start until he died in 1850 after paving the way for the Civil War.

2 speeches that are really good in terms of understanding the motivations of both sides at the beginning of the Civil War are the Cornerstone Speech by the Confederate VP (Alexander H Stephens) and Lincoln's first inaugural. Neither speech is particularly hard to read especially with Wikipedia available to look up unfamiliar terminology (i.e. "internal improvements" = 19th century name for infrastructure spending and "domestic institutions" = polite euphemism for slavery). Its especially fortunate for the sake of history that Stephens came right out and said what the Confederates believed because it makes it easy to refute the "it was about economics not slavery" line of argument from Confederate apologists. Lincoln's first inaugural is important as well because it refutes the "it was always only about slavery" argument you sometimes hear in response.

One rather interesting angle in the Cornerstone Speech is how Stephens cites Adam Smith's economics. In the north, the economic nationalist "American School" of Friedrich List and Henry Carey (Carey was Lincoln's primary economic advisor) was more influential than Adam Smith. Unless you're really interested in reading economic theory, I'd say the Wikipedia article on the American School of economics is sufficient to get the gist of the economic ideas that influenced Lincoln.

I'm not entirely sure what to recommend regarding the abolitionist movement because that's an area that's already heavily emphasized in the American education system, at least in my experience. I'm also not sure what to recommend regarding the wave of immigration that finally shifted control of the federal government from south to north in 1860 but this would definitely show up in the Census data and you can still see evidence of it today in how white people from the south are more likely to have English last names than white people from other parts of the country (the mid 1800s wave of immigration was heavily Irish and German).

Another great source for learning about what happened is to get a chance to talk to tour guides at the Civil War battlefields. I think most of my history professors from when I was majoring in history also did tours of the Gettysburg battlefield. The best time to visit is when it isn't as crowded. In the case of Gettysburg, that means avoiding the first 2 weeks of July (reenactment week followed by biker week) unless you specifically want to see the reenactment because the traffic is notoriously awful for those 2 weeks and everything is going to be packed.

Re:Why no Roman industrial revolution? by trgn on Friday August 26, 2022 @11:01AM (#32608410)
US industrialized first (and most) in the parts without slaves.

That slavery is bad for industrial production was a major abolitionist argument. It's been repeated for at least 150-200 years.

de Tocqueville dedicates many pages to just that aspect. He describes sailing down the Ohio, seeing on the right bank teeming with factories and mills, and on the left one only loafers and undeveloped land.

In pop culture too; in Gone with the Wind, Rhett Butler is the cosmopolitan embarrassing the old southern aristocrats at cocktails parties, regaling stories about the Union being flush with money and factories, the south being a backwater. That's how he knew which way the war would go.

Re:Why no Roman industrial revolution? by redwoolf on Friday August 26, 2022 @10:54AM (#32608320)
Only about half of the United States was a slave economy. In the north where slavery was not prevalent, industrialization outpaced the agrarian south. Then after the US Civil War, industrialization took off with the First Transcontinental Railroad being completed in 1869.
Re:Why no Roman industrial revolution? by bregma on Friday August 26, 2022 @11:49AM (#32608996)
I believe the number was three fifths.
Re:Why no Roman industrial revolution? by drewcoo on Friday August 26, 2022 @11:15AM (#32608612)
Roman and American slavery were very different.

https://beardyhistory.com/2018/01/01/roman-slavery-and-ameri...

The American industrial revolution was primarily a northern thing. Plus some tooling (like the cotton gin) used in the south to process slave output.

If anything, Roman slaves would have been more fit to be part of an industrial revolution as they could hold educated jobs.

Re:Why no Roman industrial revolution? by bragr on Friday August 26, 2022 @10:51AM (#32608277)
Slavery is usually the reason given why the North industrialized and the South did not pre civil war.
Re:Why no Roman industrial revolution? by anonporridge on Friday August 26, 2022 @12:12PM (#32609276)
The real reason is that wage slavery in the North is more effective than chattel slavery in the South.

When the slaves imagine themselves free and have a slightly greater amount of agency, they are more productive than those who are motivated by the whip alone.

Re:Why no Roman industrial revolution? by CrazyStat on Friday August 26, 2022 @10:52AM (#32608290)
Mostly the North industrialized, whole the South relied on slave labor as long as they could and then sharecroppers and other forms of barely-not-slavery.
Re:Why no Roman industrial revolution? by bcrosby95 on Friday August 26, 2022 @11:35AM (#32608843)
> and other forms of barely-not-slavery

The "funny" part about those barely-not-slavery practices, some were outlawed and successfully defended in court by arguing it was... actually slavery, which was illegal but had no "or else".

The US didn't crack down on this until World War 2, and that was just because they were getting bad press about it.

Re:Why no Roman industrial revolution? by watwut on Friday August 26, 2022 @10:53AM (#32608306)
At the time slavery existed, north was much more industrialized then south. The free labor ideology made North have a lot more small producers trying to innovate and earn money in market.

South ressembled and seen itself more like aristocratic gentlemens so to speak. Slavery meant that trades and smaller production were jobs for slaved, looked down at.

Re:Why no Roman industrial revolution? by imbnwa on Friday August 26, 2022 @06:20PM (#32613403)
And yet the majority of the free, antebellum South was poor. DuBois got it right about the poor Southern white being himself bamboozled by racism as well.
Re:Why no Roman industrial revolution? by desindol on Friday August 26, 2022 @11:50AM (#32609007)
Look at the world fair in London almost all of the industrial machinery was from non slave states…
Re:Why no Roman industrial revolution? by pinewurst on Friday August 26, 2022 @10:53AM (#32608299)
There was very little direct cross though. The industrialized places (cotton milling etc) almost never had enslaved workers. Those were mostly on the plantations.
Re:Why no Roman industrial revolution? by ed_balls on Friday August 26, 2022 @11:47AM (#32608979)
What is more US slave economy was worse. In Roman times you can become free. It was common for slaves to be paid wages, treated well, and given their freedom.
Re:Why no Roman industrial revolution? by replygirl on Friday August 26, 2022 @10:53AM (#32608310)
the North won because the South hadn't industrialized
Re:Why no Roman industrial revolution? by anonporridge on Friday August 26, 2022 @12:11PM (#32609263)
The United States still is a wage slave economy.

A vast improvement from a chattel slave economy, to be sure.

Re:Why no Roman industrial revolution? by umanwizard on Friday August 26, 2022 @12:30PM (#32609534)
Does "wage slavery" just mean "most people are required to work in order to survive" ? If so, every society in history is like that.
Re:Why no Roman industrial revolution? by trasz on Friday August 26, 2022 @01:15PM (#32610240)
No, it means people are forced to work multiple jobs because no basic social mechanisms, and when you are poor you can be jailed (and then exploited as a slave, slavery still pays billions per year in US) for nothing (https://twitter.com/dylanogline/status/1550121929939398656 for just one example). Not to mention many mechanisms, like student debts, seem designed to force people into military (https://twitter.com/repjimbanks/status/1562820837140742144).
Re:Why no Roman industrial revolution? by Epa095 on Friday August 26, 2022 @01:01PM (#32610055)
(Not OP, idk how she defines it). Freedom is a spectrum. There are some parts of American work life which limits people's freedom. The non-livable wages for much low income manual labour means many needs to work multiple jobs, and makes it hard to save money, so you live hand to mouth (less freedom). Tying healthcare for you and your family directly to your current job is a major freedom-remover, even if you save up money to survive a month between jobs it can literally bankrupt you if you or you family gets sick then. There are of course places which are worse, but there are also places in the world where people can quit their shitty jobs knowing that their kids will still get healthcare and school no matter what.
Re:Why no Roman industrial revolution? by swalsh on Friday August 26, 2022 @12:06PM (#32609212)
Is a slave zero cost though? Seems like the opposite. You have to pay a large upfront cost for whatever extra marginal output they can produce, which is minimal because you still need to feed/house the slave and their family, but they're probably not the most motivated worker. So you have an expensive worker you need to feed with low productivity. The economics of slaves seem pretty poor quite frankly.
Re:Why no Roman industrial revolution? by insane_dreamer on Friday August 26, 2022 @12:55PM (#32609945)
Much of the highly innovative infrastructure (roads, bridges, aquaducts, etc.) was built by the Roman army, which could be considered a form of slavery (with a freedom coupon at the end if you survived), but which had to be maintained at a certain level of effectiveness (i.e., couldn't keep them at near-starvation levels to save money), and was certainly not zero-cost.
Re:Why no Roman industrial revolution? by atchoo on Friday August 26, 2022 @11:41AM (#32608921)
Interesting to think that the invention of effective humanoid robots could return us to this slave economy with unexpected negative consequences.
Re:Why no Roman industrial revolution? by Nasrudith on Saturday August 27, 2022 @02:39AM (#32616403)
Humanoid forms are less efficient than specialist ones. It is a nonsequitor that chasis shape will somehow make a slave economy. But even if improbably sapient robot slaves were a thing part of what made slave economies stink was not upgrading their tools and efficiency. When the tools are designed by a highly educated workforce that pitfall wouldn't apply.
Re:Why no Roman industrial revolution? by desindol on Friday August 26, 2022 @11:49AM (#32608995)
Not in a working democracy.
Re:Why no Roman industrial revolution? by shadowgovt on Friday August 26, 2022 @10:42AM (#32608156)
It's really key for people to understand this, because that economic imbalance doesn't require slaves, though slaves are a sufficient condition.

It can also be done (on paper at least) with automation. The key point is "capital consolidation (which can scale) divorced from individual labor output (which does not scale)," and however you get there (slaves or robots), you can create a massive societal wealth imbalance that results in an economic arrangement utterly unlike the arrangement that spawned it.

... that reminds me, my phone pinged five minutes ago. I should go pick up that Amazon package off my porch.