Re:Why no Roman industrial revolution?
by CrazyStat on Friday August 26, 2022 @10:52AM
(#32608290)
Mostly the North industrialized, whole the South relied on slave labor as long as they could and then sharecroppers and other forms of barely-not-slavery.
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> and other forms of barely-not-slavery
The "funny" part about those barely-not-slavery practices, some were outlawed and successfully defended in court by arguing it was... actually slavery, which was illegal but had no "or else".
The US didn't crack down on this until World War 2, and that was just because they were getting bad press about it.