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Re:Why no Roman industrial revolution? by watwut on Friday August 26, 2022 @10:53AM (#32608306)
At the time slavery existed, north was much more industrialized then south. The free labor ideology made North have a lot more small producers trying to innovate and earn money in market.

South ressembled and seen itself more like aristocratic gentlemens so to speak. Slavery meant that trades and smaller production were jobs for slaved, looked down at.

Re:Why no Roman industrial revolution? by imbnwa on Friday August 26, 2022 @06:20PM (#32613403)
And yet the majority of the free, antebellum South was poor. DuBois got it right about the poor Southern white being himself bamboozled by racism as well.