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Re:How French Was Medieval England? by zwieback on Friday January 26, 2024 @03:44PM (#39148027)
I heard the same anecdote about the upper classes adopting French after 1066 but the farmers still calling the thing by its animal name. Trust the Germans to just continue smashing nouns together, Schweinefleisch, Rindfleisch and my American wife's favorite: "Hackfleisch" (hacked flesh). Too bad Germany didn't get invaded by the French until Napoleon.
Re:How French Was Medieval England? by vidarh on Friday January 26, 2024 @04:36PM (#39148814)
English "smashes words together" too - English is full of compounds (e.g. shopkeeper), it's just a much slower process, often goes via a long intermediate period of hyphenation, and the implied difference in meaning is a bit smaller.

The "smashing" together of words is much less interesting to most of us who use languages that does so than it seems to be to others - it does little more than placing the words adjacent to each other does in English, with the exception that it disambiguated.

E.g. "hakke" on it's own is the verb to hack in Norwegian, but as part of a compound it will mean something that has been hacked, or is hacking (e.g. hakkespett = woodpecker - and there's another English compound)

Funnily, Norwegian (and Danish) has imported the French boef - Norwegian as "biff" - while we still use the Germanic ku for cow - but we also "smash" words together, so hakkebiff = hakkebøf (Danish) = boef haché.

But "hakke biff" would imply the act of chopping it. And so we compound to remove the ambiguity.

We also have flesk, from the same origin as fleisch and flesh, but in Norwegian it specifically means pork flesh, so hakkeflesk, while it's not a term I can remember having heard, would be understandable but refer to pork because the meaning of combining the words is fairly generic.

Re:How French Was Medieval England? by canjobear on Friday January 26, 2024 @07:54PM (#39151113)
The main difference is really that English writes compounds with a space in between whereas German doesn't. There's no way to express compounds like "pedestrian crossing" or "windshield wiper" with a space in German. When a compound gets frequent enough in English people will stop writing the space (like "windshield") whereas in German the space was never there to begin with.
Re:How French Was Medieval England? by tnecniv on Saturday January 27, 2024 @02:09AM (#39153353)
We don’t do that with all compounds though. It’s really more a cultural thing. At a certain point a pair becomes so common place that it becomes one word. Beehive, for example, isn’t semantically different from bee hive but the pairing was common enough the space got dropped.
Re:How French Was Medieval England? by philwelch on Saturday January 27, 2024 @02:46AM (#39153533)
English also constructs compound words out of Greek or Latin roots. For example “television” is a technology for seeing things that are happening far away (i.e. in a broadcasting studio); the German word is “Fernsehen”, which would be cognate to “Far-sight”, which is what “television” means. And sometimes we even have an Anglo-Saxon compound word alongside an etymologically equivalent compound word with classical roots, such as “manslaughter” and “homicide”.
Re:How French Was Medieval England? by naravara on Saturday January 27, 2024 @08:08AM (#39155220)
> manslaughter

I never understood what they thought was so funny.

Re:How French Was Medieval England? by gumby on Saturday January 27, 2024 @09:44AM (#39155953)
The joke is that they don’t decline “man” properly (“mans” rather than “men”).

Today we’d write it menslol.

Re:How French Was Medieval England? by gumby on Saturday January 27, 2024 @09:49AM (#39156006)
Also Greek and Latin roots like monstrosities like your example “tele” (Greek) + “vision” (Latin).

The one that grates on me most is “monolingual” (unilingual/multilingual or monoglottal/polyglottal)

Re:How French Was Medieval England? by taejo on Saturday January 27, 2024 @10:39AM (#39156431)
Live free! Embrace heteroradicalism!
Re:How French Was Medieval England? by nickles on Saturday January 27, 2024 @11:33AM (#39156925)
I would typically use “crosswalk” in preference to “pedestrian crossing”. The two terms are slightly different, but functionally equivalent. Is there something similar in German?
Re:How French Was Medieval England? by mike_hearn on Saturday January 27, 2024 @12:55PM (#39157938)
Crosswalk is American English. In the UK they are always pedestrian crossings.
Re:How French Was Medieval England? by User23 on Friday January 26, 2024 @07:46PM (#39151053)
But you don’t see things like “Straßenbahnhaltestelle” in English where you have four words mashed together. I’d translate that something like “streetcar stop,” but literally it’s “street car stopping place.” Streetcarstop while reasonable would not be accepted English by native speakers. Tramstop on the other hand is (at least places where people say tram). So while we mash it’s noticeably more limited.
Re:How French Was Medieval England? by lmm on Friday January 26, 2024 @08:47PM (#39151529)
As a native English speaker, even "tramstop" or "busstop" sounds wrong to me.
Re:How French Was Medieval England? by vidarh on Saturday January 27, 2024 @06:18AM (#39154618)
As a native Norwegian speaker, I had to look it up to see whether a space was expected or not, as it seems entirely illogical for me to have a space there as they're so closely connected.

The distinction between "fully merged" compounds, hyphenated ones, and ones with spaces is yet another one of those endlessly annoying quirks of English.

Re:How French Was Medieval England? by User23 on Saturday January 27, 2024 @07:52AM (#39155125)
> The distinction between "fully merged" compounds, hyphenated ones, and ones with spaces is yet another one of those endlessly annoying quirks of English

Being cognizant of these really helps develop empathy with ESL learners.

Re:How French Was Medieval England? by mathieuh on Friday January 26, 2024 @11:09PM (#39152452)
But what’s the difference grammatically if there’s a space or not? Let’s take “streetcar stop”, although there is a space there, what function is “streetcar” performing other than being a noun? It’s not an adjective, you can’t say “that stop is streetcar”, that doesn’t sound right, you’d have to say “that stop is /for/ streetcars”.

So I would argue that “streetcar stop” still parses as a complete compound noun grammatically. This is just a matter of orthography in my opinion. German may more readily “freeze” compound nouns and put them into writing as a single unit, but both English and German are full of long ad hoc compound nouns.

Re:How French Was Medieval England? by User23 on Saturday January 27, 2024 @12:28AM (#39152863)
The difference is for the German compound word you only have to remember the endings for the last part. You don’t need to worry about adjective declension. So yes it’s a real grammatical difference and not just whitespace differences.
Re:How French Was Medieval England? by fauigerzigerk on Saturday January 27, 2024 @05:13AM (#39154269)
I think the difference is that in English you can create new nouns by simply lining up existing nouns (with spaces in between). Over time these words may or may not grow together.

In German, you would have to create a single word from the start (possibly using a hyphen for disambiguation) and in some cases pluralise individual words so they can be joined together.

But you are right that in both cases the result is just a single noun, which contrasts with agglutinative languages such as Turkish where the entire grammar of a sentence can sometimes be packed into a single, potentially very long, word.

Re:How French Was Medieval England? by vidarh on Saturday January 27, 2024 @06:14AM (#39154597)
We (my first language is Norwegian, German is my 3rd, so I'm speaking mostly from my experience with Norwegian) tend to see it as far less of an act of "creating a word" than English-speakers tend to when confronted with our languages, though.

English speakers are often amazed at how we "have words for everything", which makes it seem like it's been some conscious act of establishing a new world on purpose. Of course sometimes that is the case, but that process happens in English too.

But exactly because of what you say, directing that amazement at us just combining words is pretty much the same as if we expressed amazement at how English has sequences of words for everything.

It just looks different to English-speakers for whom the merging of multiple words into a combination they've not seen before is not a frequent occurrence.

Re:How French Was Medieval England? by vidarh on Saturday January 27, 2024 @06:42AM (#39154752)
A lot of this is historical accidents of when shorter alternatives for different parts have or have not been imported, though, and whether there's a culture for going "enough" and shortening things or importing terms. Germans seem to be far more tolerant of holding on to long compounds than most.

Norwegian has "trikk" for tram/streetcar and "stopp" for "stop", and so we have "trikkestopp" for tram stop (but see below). Trikk was a case of "sporvogn" - "track wagon" - being too long.

Meanwhile, while "streetcarstop" is not in use in English "streetcar stop" is some places. E.g.[1].

"Streetcar stopping place" of course would definitely be a step too far in English, but so would it be in e.g. Norwegian that otherwise mostly shares the German approach to combining words (to the point where newspapers regularly have articles about how the language is going to hell because people fail to combine words when they should) but where we'd go "hang on" and omit parts or otherwise rephrase to find a short alternative.

However, we do have "stoppeplass" for "stopping place", though more often used for somewhere to stop a car for a longer period, and "holdeplass" for "holding place" which implies a more temporary stopp, and so we can and sometimes do also use trikkeholdeplass - "tram holding place" [2], but these longer forms tends to gradually be replaced by shorter ones over time, as Norwegian has a tradition for contractions (to the eternal frustration of foreigners learning Norwegian, because spoken Norwegian tends to drop syllables and whole words with wild abandon) and replacing long terms.

[1] https://www.buildkcstreetcar.com/project-news/stages-of-a-st...

[2] We can, and also sometimes do (but a quick search of the Norwegian national library shows it's quite rare, with peaks of tens of uses in print some decades), use "sporvognholdeplass". If you were to say that people would probably wonder what century you are visiting from (even though the full term was no more common before), but it'd be understandable.

Re:How French Was Medieval England? by SiempreViernes on Saturday January 27, 2024 @10:01AM (#39156112)
> to the point where newspapers regularly have articles about how the language is going to hell because people fail to combine words when they should

In Sweden there was for a few years a webpage dedicated to the fight against incorrectly writing words apart, famously producing red stickers that were then used as hypens where appropriate: http://www.skrivihop.nu/exempel/bilder/fika_sugen.jpg

They got wildly popular but shut down after just three years because they felt they ended up attracting a lot of asshole followers that outright harassed people in their name.

Re:How French Was Medieval England? by gumby on Saturday January 27, 2024 @09:50AM (#39156018)
It sounds the same when you speak it it’s just a cultural convention whether you use a space or hyphen or nothing at all.
Re:How French Was Medieval England? by gumby on Friday January 26, 2024 @04:59PM (#39149176)
French does that too so I think an invasion would not have helped.
Re:How French Was Medieval England? by graywh on Friday January 26, 2024 @05:09PM (#39149319)
in English, we refer to smashed-together word(s) as "portmanteau", a French word that is a portmanteau itself
Re:How French Was Medieval England? by NoZebra120vClip on Friday January 26, 2024 @11:56PM (#39152722)
The sort of compound words which we're discussing appear by a process of synthesis:

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Synthetic_language

See also: agglutination https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Agglutination

A portmanteau is different, where parts of several words are blended, rather than retaining the substance of each word in a compound.

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Blend_word

And let's not forget xkcd's coinage of the malamanteau:

https://xkcd.com/739/

Re:How French Was Medieval England? by gerdesj on Friday January 26, 2024 @06:20PM (#39150233)
"Too bad Germany didn't get invaded by the French until Napoleon."

Read up on the Holy Roman Empire. Germany, France etc are quite complicated concepts.

Re:How French Was Medieval England? by primitivesuave on Friday January 26, 2024 @06:52PM (#39150557)
To add some context here - the concept of a unified "Germany" has only existed four times in history. First under Charlemagne in the 800s, then under Otto von Bismarck in 1871, then under Adolf Hitler until the fall of the Third Reich in 1945 (assuming one considers annexation of the Sudetenland and the Anschluss to fully encompass Germanic people), and finally the modern state of Germany since 1990.
Re:How French Was Medieval England? by usrusr on Friday January 26, 2024 @09:19PM (#39151754)
Seems arbitrary. Why Bismarck's Kaiser but none of those between Charlemagne and Napoleon? How German was the realm of Charlemagne when it reached further across the Pyrenees than it reached across the Elbe?
Re:How French Was Medieval England? by kergonath on Saturday January 27, 2024 @02:31AM (#39153466)
Charlemagne, of course, being king of the Franks and emperor of the Romans. Things back then do not match neatly to modern concepts such as a French or a German nation-state.
Re:How French Was Medieval England? by rahen on Saturday January 27, 2024 @04:32AM (#39154027)
Weren't France and Germany essentially the same country during Charlemagne?
Re:How French Was Medieval England? by nottorp on Saturday January 27, 2024 @07:30AM (#39154992)
Don't think anyone was considering themselves French or German yet. There were smaller subdivisions we forgot about (or I forgot about, I'm no historian). They just happened to be all under Charlemagne's rule.
Re:How French Was Medieval England? by kergonath on Saturday January 27, 2024 @06:44AM (#39154759)
Yes, they were. Actually the core of both countries was one and the Franks did not care much about our modern borders. Western Francia became eventually France, while Eastern Francia became Franconia (roughly, the borders were always blurry and shifted a lot over time).

Of course, the Franks came from further East and never replaced the populations they invaded, so even there and then both cultures and peoples were always mixed.

Re:How French Was Medieval England? by af3d on Saturday January 27, 2024 @10:21AM (#39156275)
Correct. The current regional concept of "Germany" proper probably started with the Treaty of Verdun, when the lands of Francia were divided amongst three of Charlemagne's grandsons. The inheritor of Francia Orientalis was in fact also known as "Louis the German".
Re:How French Was Medieval England? by cenamus on Saturday January 27, 2024 @04:42AM (#39154081)
And not even all of those included all german speaking populations, i.e. a large part of Switzerland, Austria, Liechtenstein and all those regions/cities that were partly german, modern day Transylvania for example
Re:How French Was Medieval England? by com on Saturday January 27, 2024 @04:43AM (#39154087)
The partial absence of Austria and the German-speaking cantons of Switzerland, Italy, Belgium and perhaps France in all possible variations of these “concepts” means that a United Germany has never been truly achieved I suppose. Probably a good thing for those folks own cultural and dialect identity…
Re:How French Was Medieval England? by toyg on Saturday January 27, 2024 @12:01PM (#39157290)
Language is just one element of identity anyway. Also, the concept of "United Country X" is a XIX century invention, largely based on now-discredited racist ideologies. We should aim for something better.
Re:How French Was Medieval England? by Lio on Sunday January 28, 2024 @01:06PM (#39168140)
I can think of at least one situation where this idea of a "united country" is still being forcefully pushed today...
Re:How French Was Medieval England? by pyuser583 on Friday January 26, 2024 @10:02PM (#39152020)
One of the best Christopher Hitchend quotes is about English/German compatibility:

> Der Brand (The Fire), by the historian Jörg Friedrich, accuses Winston Churchill of a conscious policy of airborne terrorism against civilians … The word “brand” in English, of course, carries a distinctly different vernacular meaning.

Re:How French Was Medieval England? by hackernewds on Saturday January 27, 2024 @01:03AM (#39153032)
Hitchens*
Re:How French Was Medieval England? by gumby on Saturday January 27, 2024 @08:31PM (#39161663)
> upper classes adopting French after 1066

The upper classes were French after 1066 (Harold had definitively repelled the Danes for the last time just three weeks before Hastings).

Re:How French Was Medieval England? by Lio on Sunday January 28, 2024 @01:02PM (#39168103)
It's not so much that the upper classes adopted French after 1066, it's that the upper class was replaced by people that spoke Norman French.

If you examine the richest landed gentry in England today a very sizeable number still bare the family names of those that fought for William at the Battle of Hastings.