Top 1%: 40% to 54% -> +14%
Top 10%: 77% to 93% -> +16%
Top 10% minus the top 1%: 37% to 39% -> +2%
Essentially this was all the top 1% and the rest of the 10%ers barely budged in ownership percent. I'd be curious to see the results for top 0.1% and 0.01% as well.
> [edit] Found the source numbers:
> 50-90% https://fred.stlouisfed.org/series/WFRBSN40172
> 90-99% https://fred.stlouisfed.org/series/WFRBSN09145
> 99-99.9% https://fred.stlouisfed.org/series/WFRBS99T999258
This is the series I think you want.
Share of Corporate Equities and Mutual Fund Shares
If 93% of stock market wealth help by the wealthiest 10% represents $10k, that means something really different than if it represents $1m. Comparing percentages can be really confusing, particularly when talking about wealth.
Assuming Us has round 300k population.
My understanding: lets say whole market is worth 1Gz, i.e. sum(share*sharePirce) over (all shares in all companies) is 1 gadzilion, so 10% of population (30k) combined own 0.93 gadzilion. While the rest (270k), share 0.07 Gz of market.
on avg per person 0.93/30=0.031Gz 0.07/270=0.00025Gz
(On average, poorer 9 deciles are poorer by a factor of two)
No, overpriced housing. You want jobs? You need more income equality to fund spending.
But yes, government should use our tax money better, and even if they are used as a debtor of last resort, they should use the money they borrow more wisely as well (less relevant now that interest rates are high).
Today, practically everyone including fastfood workers has access to 401ks which are extremely cheap. No commission fees upfront. Almost every broker has commission free trading. Not only can you buy 1 share at a time, you can buy fractions of 1 share. You can do it all from your phone, after or before market hours.
Access has been expanded and costs lowered dramatically. So why have the bottom 90% stopped buying shares?
accessibility is useless without purchasing power
https://www.census.gov/library/publications/2023/demo/p60-27...
https://archive.is/emsQK