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Re:I employed a California resident, so now I’m subject to i... by causi on Thursday April 28, 2022 @12:47PM (#31194831)
This should probably be expanded to something more like, "don't hire remote employees living in a jurisdiction whose employment laws you don't know."

The fact states can reach outside their own jurisdiction is pretty insane in my opinion. If I'm sending money to someone who lives in State A, compliance with the regulations of State A should be the responsibility of the person who lives there, not the person who doesn't. This regulatory burden means I would never employ anyone except as a 1099 until my business was large enough hire a full time payroll accountant.

I owe $800 for the “minimum franchise tax”. California charges this fee to everyone for the “privilege” of “doing business” in California, whether they have revenue or not.

How is this not extraordinarily counterproductive? Residents of California have a child, then spend tremendous resources both private and public raising and educating that child. When the child becomes an adult he find an employment opportunity with a company in another state. California behaves as if it would rather him just leave and take all those resources than stay and pay income tax on his earnings that come from out of state.

Re:I employed a California resident, so now I’m subject to i... by kayodelycaon on Thursday April 28, 2022 @01:00PM (#31195002)
Except it is their jurisdiction. If you have an employee in a state, you need to comply with all the regulations in regards to employees.

For example, if you’re based in Tennessee and you if hire an employee in Washington and decide you only need to follow Tennessee minimum wage policy, Washington has every right to fine you or take you to court under Washington law.

Re:I employed a California resident, so now I’m subject to i... by devoutsalsa on Thursday April 28, 2022 @01:03PM (#31195030)
Because it’s untenable.
Re:I employed a California resident, so now I’m subject to i... by kayodelycaon on Thursday April 28, 2022 @01:19PM (#31195263)
In what way are laws for employing someone in a state indefensible?

You don’t get to set up shop in a state with low taxes and minimum wage then pay your employees in another state using whichever state’s laws you prefer.

Re:I employed a California resident, so now I’m subject to i... by notch656a on Thursday April 28, 2022 @01:26PM (#31195371)
Except in this case the 'shop' is in Illinois. A California resident commutes his bits to Illinois and somehow in all it's wisdom California wants to exercise itself outside of its jurisdiction into the shop in Illinois.
Re:I employed a California resident, so now I’m subject to i... by gamblor956 on Thursday April 28, 2022 @01:41PM (#31195606)
No, in this case the shop is in California, where the California resident is performing his work, which is then transmitted to the office in Illinois.

CA gets to regulate the company with respect to its CA operations, i.e., that employee in CA. The CA regulations don't apply to any of the company's non-CA employees.

This has always been the rule with respect to employees working in other jurisdictions.

Re:I employed a California resident, so now I’m subject to i... by jleyank on Thursday April 28, 2022 @02:08PM (#31196005)
I recall that Kansas and Missouri had a tax arrangement as lots of people lived on one side and worked on the other (there are two Kansas City’s). This meant that only the excess was paid to whichever had the higher tax rates although both forms were filed.
Re:I employed a California resident, so now I’m subject to i... by nawgz on Thursday April 28, 2022 @01:22PM (#31195305)
I find it comical to see you assert, in 3 words, that states shouldn't have the ability to exercise their regulatory powers to protect their citizens on the singular basis that the entity subject to regulations is outside their border.

The real "untenable" thing is proposing that corporations can neuter state laws entirely by the simple act of incorporating in not that state. I'm sure that wouldn't lead to a race to the bottom or anything, the US definitely doesn't already have issues with corporate-owned states or anything

Re:I employed a California resident, so now I’m subject to i... by WkndTriathlete on Thursday April 28, 2022 @02:03PM (#31195926)
I see you didn't bother to read the article.

I have no problem with California exercising its sovereignty over its own citizens. The employee in question should have been protected by California laws, being a resident of California.

What the article's author relates is California asserting sovereignty over an entity that has no nexus or revenue derived from California. This is the overreach and should be outright banned at the Federal level, otherwise there's nothing stopping a state from passing a law that requires companies to pay $30,000 tax for the next five years for every employee that vacations in that state. Do we really want to stomp small businesses with having to know the business tax codes for all fifty states in this age of remote work? I think not.

It's about as stupid as the five states in the US that decide they can impose income tax on non-citizens of those states if the employer resides in that state.

Re:I employed a California resident, so now I’m subject to i... by lovich on Thursday April 28, 2022 @02:22PM (#31196212)
They have nexus in California the moment they engage in business with an entity in California. When they hired an employee in California the employee was the entity and hiring them to do work while in California was engaging in business in California.

The idea that the employees and the work they do aren’t part of the business is some new idea that I hope doesn’t gain traction.

Say the federal government did allow for this line of reasoning and prevented states from treating remote employees as having nexus in the state they live and work in. How does that not end up with every company incorporating in one state and hiring all their employees in other states so they can avoid all state level regulation?

Re:I employed a California resident, so now I’m subject to i... by nawgz on Thursday April 28, 2022 @02:45PM (#31196565)
> an entity that has no nexus or revenue derived from California

The revenue any business derives is the sum of its employee efforts. A physical presence vis a vis an employee is surely a nexus.

> otherwise there's nothing stopping a state from passing a law that requires companies to pay $30,000 tax for the next five years for every employee that vacations in that state

You know, I'm not surprised you would make such a hilarious non-sequitur given your position makes no sense in the first place, but to argue "an employee going on vacation in a state" is even in the same universe as "employing a resident of a state" is actually pathetic.

> Do we really want to stomp small businesses with having to know the business tax codes for all fifty states in this age of remote work? I think not.

Do we really want to simply take away all regulations so corporations can take advantage of interconnectivity and globalization to be even more exploitative of workers and increase wealth inequality further? I think not.

> It's about as stupid as the five states in the US that decide they can impose income tax on non-citizens of those states if the employer resides in that state.

What is a "non-citizen of a state"? I have never heard of citizenship in a state, that is a country-level concept. If you perhaps mean non-residents, I would also agree this seems like overreach, except funny enough the US government does the same thing to all its citizens unless they pay a big fee to renounce their citizenship, so it is a distinctly American brand of overreach!

Re:I employed a California resident, so now I’m subject to i... by dvdkon on Thursday April 28, 2022 @02:57PM (#31196717)
What if those citizens move to a different state or country? I think we can agree the new state's laws shoud apply exclusively. Why or how is that different from commuting into work across borders? And why is that different from working remotely?

Maybe there is a reasonable explanation for treating these differently, I just don't see it right now.

Re:I employed a California resident, so now I’m subject to i... by nawgz on Thursday April 28, 2022 @03:02PM (#31196787)
> What if those citizens move to a different state or country? I think we can agree the new state's laws shoud apply exclusively.

Yes, because if the person moves to a new state, their entity has established a nexus in one state, and therefore that state exclusively governs them.

The business entity who has employees in other states is, by the exact same logic, subjected to the laws of each state they have nexus in, and an employee that is a resident of a state is transparently a nexus in that state, as you agreed upon in your "moving" example.

Hopefully it's clear!

Re:I employed a California resident, so now I’m subject to i... by Dangeranger on Thursday April 28, 2022 @01:18PM (#31195257)
What is untenable exactly? That a state is provided the ability to enforce their laws?

National governments are allowed to enforce laws outside their own borders, such as intellectual property and copyright. While challenging to enforce, it is possible.

Re:I employed a California resident, so now I’m subject to i... by giantg2 on Thursday April 28, 2022 @01:28PM (#31195414)
"National governments are allowed to enforce laws outside their own borders, such as intellectual property and copyright."

I believe those are done through treaties.

I'm not sure how the federal government weighs in on this since they have the authority on interstate commerce, which this falls under.

Re:I employed a California resident, so now I’m subject to i... by Dangeranger on Thursday April 28, 2022 @01:40PM (#31195602)
The states also signed laws, akin to treaties at the time, agreeing to allow other states to enforce certain domains of law within their jurisdiction. This is part of how the federation of the United States of America came into being.
Re:I employed a California resident, so now I’m subject to i... by giantg2 on Thursday April 28, 2022 @02:05PM (#31195955)
Are these general or specific? I know some laws have been passed like a treaty between states, especially ones that border each other. The ones I know are very specific.
Re:I employed a California resident, so now I’m subject to i... by zie on Thursday April 28, 2022 @02:07PM (#31195990)
Not really, or not always. An example: The IRS taxes every US citizen on all income, regardless of where they live. They didn't go setup tax treaties with every country. If I'm a US citizen living in North Korea, I still have to file US taxes every year, despite the 2 countries essentially hating on each other for decades.
Re:I employed a California resident, so now I’m subject to i... by giantg2 on Thursday April 28, 2022 @02:28PM (#31196294)
Sure, but that's devoid of the international enforcement mentioned. If your assets are in North Korea or a Swiss bank, then they can't force you to pay it. If your assets are in US accounts, then they could easily do so. I imagine there are other countries that we do have treaties with (or even if the bank has branches/business in the US so that the government doesn't make their life difficult) that would cooperate in freezing your international assets held in those countries too.
Re:I employed a California resident, so now I’m subject to i... by zie on Thursday April 28, 2022 @04:48PM (#31198019)
I agree, enforcement matters. My opinion: In the last 50+ years, it's been a very bad bet to be against the USA. They generally get whatever they want.

If that's right or not, is certainly debatable.

Re:I employed a California resident, so now I’m subject to i... by devoutsalsa on Sunday May 01, 2022 @10:24PM (#31230779)
The way things are going these days, I would never move to a place that doesn’t have a current agreement with the United States and assume it’d stay that way.
Re:I employed a California resident, so now I’m subject to i... by Asooka on Thursday April 28, 2022 @02:01PM (#31195905)
It should be on the employee to pay the relevant tax on the income they receive, anything past that is outside the state's jurisdiction, as the company has no physical presence or business there. A government doesn't have the power to enforce its laws beyond its borders, without specific agreements in place. Does every state have the relevant agreement with the state of California to allow it to enforce its laws on their territory? Can the state of California even sue someone that never entered their jurisdiction?
Re:I employed a California resident, so now I’m subject to i... by mumblemumble on Thursday April 28, 2022 @02:13PM (#31196075)
You do have presence and business there. You're employing residents of that state. According to the law, that employment arrangement takes place within that state's borders.
Re:I employed a California resident, so now I’m subject to i... by jleyank on Thursday April 28, 2022 @02:06PM (#31195971)
Worker resides in California therefor they and their company are tangled up there. 1099’s.
Re:I employed a California resident, so now I’m subject to i... by solenoidalslide on Thursday April 28, 2022 @06:26PM (#31198994)
If a company from Virginia does business with an employee from California, then business is taking place between entities of Virginia and California, thus Virginian and Californian laws must be followed. It is that simple.
Re:I employed a California resident, so now I’m subject to i... by dismantlethesun on Thursday April 28, 2022 @01:05PM (#31195051)
Lack of physical presence should exempt you from prosecution from a states laws.

They are of course free to capture anything that crosses their border, which in this case ought to mean that your company won’t be able to send money to the state.

Re:I employed a California resident, so now I’m subject to i... by azernik on Thursday April 28, 2022 @01:07PM (#31195091)
An employee in a state is physical presence
Re:I employed a California resident, so now I’m subject to i... by pclmulqdq on Thursday April 28, 2022 @02:01PM (#31195899)
Current US employment and business laws are not set up well for remote work at all. Several states say different things about this, and there is probably going to be a reckoning on this subject soon.
Re:I employed a California resident, so now I’m subject to i... by dismantlethesun on Friday April 29, 2022 @12:04PM (#31206942)
I don’t think I should be physically present in the USA just because I transferred money to a USA citizen in exchange for services.

However USA law defines this, I think is wrong. That’s what I’m saying.

The USA is an outlier in many ways. It taxes it’s citizens outside of the country, forces awkward bilateral trade agreements , and is not at all harmonized with work laws of other countries.

An office is a physical presence to me. A single person working from their own house is not.

Re:I employed a California resident, so now I’m subject to i... by Dangeranger on Thursday April 28, 2022 @01:20PM (#31195274)
Is the company not deriving value across the state border? Is the employee not being compensated across the state border?
Re:I employed a California resident, so now I’m subject to i... by dismantlethesun on Friday April 29, 2022 @12:09PM (#31207030)
In my comment, I was referring to the state as the entirety of the US , including California.

But I suppose if your company already is in the USA, you should have to deal with the tar pit if it’s multiple jurisdictions. I hear people who WFH for NYC companies have to pay city tax even if they are in some other US state, so this is really no difference.

Re:I employed a California resident, so now I’m subject to i... by notch656a on Thursday April 28, 2022 @01:29PM (#31195424)
The employee is deriving value across the border. The shop itself is in Illinois, where they derive value from bits and bytes within their state. Charge the employee with any tax crimes, not the company.
Re:I employed a California resident, so now I’m subject to i... by Dangeranger on Thursday April 28, 2022 @01:32PM (#31195462)
Why would the company compensate an employee if that employee were not providing value back in return?
Re:I employed a California resident, so now I’m subject to i... by notch656a on Thursday April 28, 2022 @01:34PM (#31195492)
The value is provided in Illinois, not California. The work is worth nothing to the shop in Illinois while it is in California. The employee shipped the bits to Illinois, blame them for shipping the bits to Illinois. Compensation was provided for the bits in Illinois, not the bits in California. Why would the Illinois company pay for bits locked inside California that they can't access.
Re:I employed a California resident, so now I’m subject to i... by Dangeranger on Thursday April 28, 2022 @01:49PM (#31195731)
The value to the consumer was provided by the company in Illinois, the value to the company was provided by an employee residing in California.

Why would the intellectual property the employee generated be worth nothing simply by originating in California?

In other words, if a bottle manufacturer in Illinois sourced raw glass pellets from a plant they owned in California, they would be deriving value from a source in California. The glass is not worthless because it hasn’t been converted into bottles yet.

The employee is providing intellectual property across state lines, which is why the state can enforce laws on that value that originated from within their jurisdiction.

Re:I employed a California resident, so now I’m subject to i... by notch656a on Thursday April 28, 2022 @04:58PM (#31198119)
>The value to the consumer was provided by the company in Illinois, the value to the company was provided by an employee residing in California.

The value to the company was provided in Illinois, with bits inside of Illinois. The company doesn't value bits inside California that it cannot access. They compensated for bits they can actually access within Illinois.

>Why would the intellectual property the employee generated be worth nothing simply by originating in California?

It may be worth something to someone in California before it's exported, but that transaction never happened. In this case though the actual transaction took place in exchange for a product inside Illinois.

>In other words, if a bottle manufacturer in Illinois sourced raw glass pellets from a plant they owned in California, they would be deriving value from a source in California. The glass is not worthless because it hasn’t been converted into bottles yet.

This is actually a great example. I buy ammunition online from a company in Oklahoma, where all the business and employees of the ammunition company resides. Yet I pay sales tax here in <my state> based on recent court rulings regarding 'internet sales tax' which state the tax is where the transaction took place (/the finished product goes to), not where the company and/or workers physically resides. It wouldn't make sense at all for me to pay sales tax to Oklahoma, even though the ammunition and even all the physical presence was initially generated there. I pay sales tax where the transaction and actual value to me, the buyer of the goods, actually are. Using the same analogy from this court ruling, you would pay tax on the IP you bought in Illinois and not where it was initially produced California.

>The employee is providing intellectual property across state lines, which is why the state can enforce laws on that value that originated from within their jurisdiction.

The employer is buying IP within their state lines of Illinois. You may be arguing the 'employee' is actually misclassified and is an illegal exporter who is a business owner in California with an export and bit smuggling business. Go after this 'employee' (bit smuggler), not the person buying bits in Illinois.

Re:I employed a California resident, so now I’m subject to i... by Dangeranger on Thursday April 28, 2022 @05:46PM (#31198602)
> The value to the company was provided in Illinois, with bits inside of Illinois. The company doesn't value bits inside California that it cannot access. They compensated for bits they can actually access within Illinois.

Your comment confirmed that the value originated in one place, California where the company could not access it, and was transferred to another place, Illinois where the company could access it. The employee was compensated for the transfer of this value. That is interstate commerce, and therefore the jurisdiction of the originating state, California, can apply.

> It may be worth something to someone in California before it's exported, but that transaction never happened. In this case though the actual transaction took place in exchange for a product inside Illinois.

The company in Illinois compensated the employee for their time to generate intellectual property, so the company valued their work and exchanged payment to the employee for exchange of that value. So then the work clearly has value prior to being packaged and sold to the end customer.

> I buy ammunition online from a company in Oklahoma, where all the business and employees of the ammunition company resides. Yet I pay sales tax here in <my state> based on recent court rulings regarding 'internet sales tax' which state the tax is where the transaction took place, not where the company and/or workers physically resides.

The exchange of value and compensation between a company and their employees is governed by employment law. You seem to have conflated the concept of an employee with that of a business or an independent contractor, which are not the same thing, and are not governed by the same laws. When you hire employees across state lines, you are extending your business operations across state lines, and are subject to state jurisdiction. That is the cost-benefit trade-off of hiring outside your state, if you hired employees outside your country, for example in Canada or Mexico, then you would be beholden to inter-national laws governed by treaties.

> The employer is buying IP within their state lines of Illinois.

No, the business is not "purchasing IP within their state lines", the business is employing a person who resides within another state, and therefore the business must abide by the employment laws of the employee's state, as well as the business state of origin. An example of buying IP would be purchasing a legal contract template, or a software license. In the examples I provided sales tax for the state where the purchase originated would apply.

> You may be arguing the 'employee' is actually misclassified and is an illegal exporter who is a business owner in California with an export and bit smuggling business. Go after this 'employee' (bit smuggler), not the person buying bits in Illinois.

I'm unsure if you are trolling or just very confused, but your statement makes no sense and does not fit within the logical framework of United States inter-state commerce law. Employees are not classified as an independent business, they are and extension of a business's operations.

Re:I employed a California resident, so now I’m subject to i... by notch656a on Thursday April 28, 2022 @06:27PM (#31199003)
>That is interstate commerce, and therefore the jurisdiction of the originating state, California, can apply.

States are divested of the power to regulate interstate commerce. This is squarely jurisdiction of federal government, not the states.

>Your comment confirmed that the value originated in one place

The bits originated in California. The value originated in Illinois. It was valueless to the company while locked in California. Perhaps it was valuable to someone else who never made the transaction in California, but not to the company in Illinois who actually paid for it.

>The company in Illinois compensated the employee for their time to generate intellectual property,

If the employer were simply paying for time then why not hire a prisoner or a nice retired old lady to sit in a chair for 8 hours a day? We both know they aren't paying for time, they're paying for the useful bits they have in Illinois. They want the IP, not to burn people's time.

>So then the work clearly has value prior to being packaged and sold to the end customer.

It has value to the customer in Illinois, not in California. It is valueless to the customer locked up in California. It has value perhaps to the employee in California, but not the employer (customer).

>You seem to have conflated the concept of an employee with that of a business or an independent contractor, which are not the same thing, and are not governed by the same laws

I haven't conflated, I'm showing the courts contradict themselves. They say it's fair game to charge sales tax even with no physical presence, with no tax paid to the other state with physical presence, but then want the exact opposite if you buy IP from an 'employee' instead of bullets from a company. It makes no sense. They want to have their cake and eat it too. One may argue such wishy-washy behavior is 'arbitrary and capricious' which could cast doubt on whether their rulings are even enforceable.

>No, the business is not "purchasing IP within their state lines", the business is employing a person who resides within another state, and therefore the business must abide by the employment laws of the employee's state, as well as the business state of origin. An example of buying IP would be purchasing a legal contract template, or a software license. In the examples I provided sales tax for the state where the purchase originated would apply.

We simply disagree here. I see that they are purchasing IP within their state lines, you see something completely different.

>I'm unsure if you are trolling or just very confused

I could say the same for the state of California. It seems they are trolling to go after someone in Illinois for buying bits in Illinois. Once it was in Illinois it had value, before that it didn't have value to the buyer. Again it was useless to the Illinois company while locked up in California.

California wants to regulate interstate commerce, which of course is flatly unconstitutional. California's tax board is a clown circus of petty tyrants who have tortured and subjugated their victims for far too long.

Re:I employed a California resident, so now I’m subject to i... by Dangeranger on Thursday April 28, 2022 @07:05PM (#31199332)
> States are divested of the power to regulate interstate commerce. This is squarely jurisdiction of federal government, not the states.

It's not as simple as that. States can indeed apply their laws to interstate commerce in a myriad of ways, but not to the degree that the U.S. federal government can. States for example can force e-commerce companies to apply sales tax to purchases made by customers based in the given state, even though the business is based in another state. By your logic, the state should only be able to enforce their laws on the resident customer, but that's not true, they can apply their law to the online retailer who doesn't have a presence in the state and force them to collect the taxes on the state's behalf and remit the taxes to the state. [0]

As a second example, a state's minimum wage laws apply to any person who resides within the state, even if that person works remotely for a company based solely in another state. If you have a company in Illinois, your minimum wage is $12.00 per hour. If you employ a person who resides in California for remote work, you still must pay them the California minimum wage of $14.00 per hour. You must also adhere to other labor laws for the employee who resides in California for overtime, maximum hours worked per day, and others. [1]

> We simply disagree here. I see that they are purchasing IP within their state lines, you see something completely different.

We do disagree, but your opinion also disagrees with one-hundred years of U.S. employment case law, and so I would argue is factually incorrect.

[0] https://www.taxjar.com/sales-tax/nexus

[1] https://www.dol.gov/agencies/whd/minimum-wage/state#ca

Re:I employed a California resident, so now I’m subject to i... by notch656a on Thursday April 28, 2022 @07:24PM (#31199472)
>By your logic, the state should only be able to enforce their laws on the resident customer, but that's not true, they can apply their law to the online retailer who doesn't have a presence in the state and force them to collect the taxes on the state's behalf and remit the taxes to the state. [0]

Which of course is insane and shows the dire state of constitutional crisis in our nation.

>minimum wage laws

Another horrible kick in the teeth to the poor -- outlawing work for the lowest on the rung of the economic latter. Minimum wage laws are an argument against this legislative tyranny, not for it.

>We do disagree, but your opinion also disagrees with one-hundred years of U.S. employment case law, and so I would argue is factually incorrect.

I count that as a pro, not a con. The last 100 years of legislation in the US is the biggest swath of which ought to be eliminated, IMO. Starting with the 16th amendment.

Re:I employed a California resident, so now I’m subject to i... by gamblor956 on Thursday April 28, 2022 @01:43PM (#31195642)
Under literally more than a century of law, domestic and international, the company is deriving value from the employee's work based on where the employee is physically sited.

So basically, you're just arguing against more than a century of essentially universal law.

Re:I employed a California resident, so now I’m subject to i... by dismantlethesun on Friday April 29, 2022 @12:14PM (#31207101)
Free mobility of labor is being hindered by these outdated laws. Either the state should harmonize taxation and figure this out between themselves or companies who do WFH to people living in other states should be considered as hiring independent contractors always.

That the federal government can’t or won’t step in and help people in the USA out of this morass is shameful. That’s my value judgment.

Re:I employed a California resident, so now I’m subject to i... by notch656a on Thursday April 28, 2022 @02:18PM (#31196156)
>So basically, you're just arguing against more than a century of essentially universal law.

Yes, basically, and doubly so for the income tax.

Re:I employed a California resident, so now I’m subject to i... by dragonwriter on Thursday April 28, 2022 @01:09PM (#31195111)
> The fact states can reach outside their own jurisdiction is pretty insane in my opinion

If they can reach there, legally, it is, by definition, their jurisdiction, whether or not it is their territory, but, in any case, this is about regulation of work within the clearcut territorial boundaries of the state, so there isn't any reaching outside going on. There is a foreign business reaching inside and getting upset that when doing so what they do in that context becomes subject to the laws of the jurisdiction they voluntarily reach into in order to exploit business opportunities available there.

Re:I employed a California resident, so now I’m subject to i... by wombatpm on Thursday April 28, 2022 @04:08PM (#31197575)
Taxes too. I have a relative who works as an auditor for the California Department of Revenue. Her job is to go into business in other states and determine if they are paying sufficient CA sales tax on their business.
Re:I employed a California resident, so now I’m subject to i... by dragonwriter on Thursday April 28, 2022 @04:18PM (#31197691)
> I have a relative who works as an auditor for the California Department of Revenue

No such department exists in California state government. Major state-level tax bodies in California are the Board of Equalization, the Franchise Tax Board, and the Department of Tax and Fee Administration. Sales and Use Tax is handled by the last.

Re:I employed a California resident, so now I’m subject to i... by vkou on Thursday April 28, 2022 @12:58PM (#31194973)
What's insane is that some people believe that just because they do something in a state with computers, they are somehow not bound by the state's laws.
Re:I employed a California resident, so now I’m subject to i... by telchior on Thursday April 28, 2022 @01:06PM (#31195074)
It's not insane. It's perhaps not perfect, but definitely not insane. Considering:

* We have 50 states

* ... and if you're doing business online, add 50 countries to that...

* ... with their own sub-regions which may have their own laws (see the comment about Quebec above)

* Each of these local jurisdictions tends to have a LOT of laws on the books;

* Many of which are poorly written and unclear

* Many of which have been inconsistently, infrequently or unclearly applied as the internet has grown (you can very easily find examples of even giant companies, with corporate legal teams, running into unexpected issues)

Finally, there's the kicker:

* Even lawyers will end up telling you that, due to lack of clarity around laws applying to the internet and their enforcement, you might engage in a practice now only to find out later that it was more risky than you thought

Granted, OP's case is not the most complicated out there. It has a fairly clear answer: California is extremely aggressive about taxation and will grab any money it can. Hence the nickname "Taxifornia". And, be aware that employment is a particularly risky area.

But interstate commerce is really not as simple an issue as you're making it out to be. I've asked my accountant about issues where the answer was "well, you could technically be fined $50,000 and nobody really knows whether the state could successfully apply the fine, but right now they're not doing it sooooo..."

Re:I employed a California resident, so now I’m subject to i... by vkou on Thursday April 28, 2022 @01:14PM (#31195172)
So? If you are doing business in 50 states, you need to be complaint with the laws of all of them. If you don't like it, you should move to a country with a more homogenized regulatory environment. Just because you are doing things with computers doesn't change anything. If I operated a franchise with 50 different locations, I'd also need to be complaint with 50 different regulatory environments.

You can't have 'states rights' (which, for better or worse, is how America claims to govern itself) and also have a single law of the land.

If you aren't sure that you're breaking a state law, don't do business in that state. Or do, and live with the consequences.

Re:I employed a California resident, so now I’m subject to i... by telchior on Thursday April 28, 2022 @01:26PM (#31195382)
The point is that it's not insane to not have omniscient awareness of all laws in 50 states. It's tough running a very small business. If someone doesn't have enough funding to hire a team of lawyers, should they just fuck off and never do business anywhere? Your answer seems to be "yes".

You also completely ignored my point on the legal uncertainty factors. Businesses break laws every day that are just not enforced. Even a lawyer or accountant is occasionally blindsided by a state or federal authority choosing to selectively apply a law.

My sympathies lie with the small business owner here. It's very difficult to make sure that you've got every angle covered at all times, especially at the scale he's running at.

Re:I employed a California resident, so now I’m subject to i... by vkou on Thursday April 28, 2022 @01:33PM (#31195477)
Yes, it's difficult to run a small business that wants to behave like large business, but doesn't want to do the necessary work to be in compliance.
Re:I employed a California resident, so now I’m subject to i... by telchior on Thursday April 28, 2022 @02:25PM (#31196259)
"Small business that wants to behave like large business"

You mean, exist in the 21st century and sell or conduct any kind of business online? Is that a big business?

It's a well recognized fact that legal and accounting complexity, aka red tape, is an inhibitor of small business growth. Derisively sneering at anyone who doesn't want to do the "necessary work" or "behave" is a troll opinion, and not particularly rational.

Re:I employed a California resident, so now I’m subject to i... by vkou on Thursday April 28, 2022 @04:26PM (#31197779)
No, I mean doing business in 50 different states, or, as mentioned higher up in this thread, >50 different countries.

Any business that has ever tried to do something at that scale at any point in human history needed to deal with compliance in all of them. Just because Stripe or the Apple Store provides payment processing as a service doesn't mean that you can just shrug your shoulders, and claim that none of the other regional distinctions and local laws apply to you.

> Derisively sneering at anyone who doesn't want to do the "necessary work" or "behave" is a troll opinion, and not particularly rational.

Claiming that the law doesn't apply to you because you're a small business and you can't be bothered to follow it what isn't particularly rational, here. If you think this is an excessive burden, you should work to invest more power in the federal government, or in international unions like the EU.

You don't just get to do a run-around of sovereignty because you're a foreigner and it's a lot of work.

Re:I employed a California resident, so now I’m subject to i... by telchior on Thursday April 28, 2022 @06:17PM (#31198897)
While I believe that the point about doing business in other countries is valid, we aren't talking about foreigners in this thread. We're talking about someone in state A that wants to do business in state B under the general assumption that they won't be blindsided by policies being vastly different between the two. I sympathize because I have been blindsided in that way before -- 3 years after making a decision, my accountant informed me that an obscure (federal, in this case) tax requirement existed that I didn't know about, hadn't known to ask about, had never heard about from a lawyer, the accountant or anyone else, and had absolutely massive fines associated with it.

Basically everything you've written is dripping with contempt for anyone who gets similarly blindsided, and you're making every effort to strawman and twist the message. Nobody, not me and not the guy writing this article, says that the law "doesn't apply" to us. Most people starting a business have a deep desire to follow the law as well as possible, because they don't want to run into future difficulties. But again, it's difficult to check all the boxes.

I wonder why you're so contemptuous, but it's kind of a moot point. Most people understand that the tax code complex, and understand that it would be better for small businesses if they were not so complex.

Re:I employed a California resident, so now I’m subject to i... by dragonwriter on Thursday April 28, 2022 @01:18PM (#31195248)
> You can't have 'states rights' (which, for better or worse, is how America claims to govern itself)

No, it's not.

“States rights” didn't really enter the political lexicon until it was injected there by the proponents of permanent institutionalization and expansion of slavery, who eventually revolted over it, lost, and whose ideological successors keep raising as a motto for their (usually unsuccessful, beyond the short term) attempts to resist progress on equal civil rights.

It is not “how America claims to govern itself”, it's how reactionary dissidents against the way America governs itself complain that they would prefer America to govern itself.

In the way America claims to govern itself, people have rights and governments, including those of states, have powers.

You probably mean “federalism” or “dual sovereignty” or something like that.

Re:I employed a California resident, so now I’m subject to i... by seti0Cha on Thursday April 28, 2022 @01:51PM (#31195765)
State's rights have been an issue since before the signing of the constitution, as can be seen by how long it took to get all the states on board. Many were reluctant to cede that much power. It was only in the early 19th century that the preeminence of the federal government was established, culminating in a ruling that states did not have the right to ignore the fugitive slave act right before the civil war. It's true that the slave states really embraced that position a their core justification, but that's not how it originated.
Re:I employed a California resident, so now I’m subject to i... by dragonwriter on Thursday April 28, 2022 @01:54PM (#31195796)
> State's rights have been an issue since before the signing of the constitution

The general issue of the relative distribution of power between states and the central government has.

That's not what “State’s rights” historically refers to. As I explained, in detail.

Re:I employed a California resident, so now I’m subject to i... by brewdad on Thursday April 28, 2022 @01:27PM (#31195393)
Have you read the 10th Amendment? State's rights are literally enshrined in the Constitution.
Re:I employed a California resident, so now I’m subject to i... by gamblor956 on Thursday April 28, 2022 @02:05PM (#31195967)
The powers not delegated to the United States by the Constitution, nor prohibited by it to the States, are reserved to the States respectively, or to the people

Doesn't say anything about state's rights. But it does suggest that any powers not already reserved by the Federal government belong as much to the people (i.e., citizens) as they do to the states.

Re:I employed a California resident, so now I’m subject to i... by dragonwriter on Thursday April 28, 2022 @01:35PM (#31195513)
> Have you read the 10th Amendment?

Yes, have you?

> State's rights are literally enshrined in the Constitution.

Find the word “right” or “rights” in the 10th Amendment.

“Rights” are nowhere associated with governments (state or federal) except in being protected against them in the Constitution (either base, bill of rights, or later Amendments); in the Constitutional model, people have both rights and powers, the latter of which they endow selectively to various governments.

“States rights” is a slogan created much later than the BoR by the pro-slavery faction that continues to be an anti-civil-rights slogan.

Re:I employed a California resident, so now I’m subject to i... by salawat on Thursday April 28, 2022 @01:35PM (#31195512)
Our legal system is fully optimized around Availibility in CAP or PACELC theorem terms.

Leave any delusions of consistency at the door. :)

Re:I employed a California resident, so now I’m subject to i... by bpodgursky on Thursday April 28, 2022 @01:02PM (#31195019)
Because the business engagement not meaningfully in that state, if the only interaction is with a an employee with a computer screen in the state.

I get, from a legal perspective, that that's not fully aligned with all court precedent, but it's OK to call it dumb that CA has any say over this situation.

Re:I employed a California resident, so now I’m subject to i... by pavlov on Thursday April 28, 2022 @01:05PM (#31195060)
Does the employee pay tax to California? Then they're employed in California. That doesn't seem complicated.
Re:I employed a California resident, so now I’m subject to i... by jleyank on Thursday April 28, 2022 @02:16PM (#31196117)
Don’t forget that city and or county taxes can get involved as well as state and federal. Hence contractors. When I talked to euro companies as a n American it was never hire w/o moving to eu. Could contract but then it was all my problem.
Re:I employed a California resident, so now I’m subject to i... by bpodgursky on Thursday April 28, 2022 @01:10PM (#31195126)
Nobody is questioning that the employee should pay income tax. The question is whether the 1-person remote "business" has a nexus in CA and should be the treated the same as a company with a warehouse and 500 employees.

I'm not sure what you're missing here. I'm calling it dumb and inefficient. Yes, CA seems to have the legal right to set up a dumb system. That doesn't mean it's a Good Thing.

Re:I employed a California resident, so now I’m subject to i... by dragonwriter on Thursday April 28, 2022 @01:13PM (#31195166)
> The question is whether the 1-person remote "business" has a nexus in CA

It does; that nexus consisting of 100% of its labor force working in the state.

> and should be the treated the same as a company with a warehouse and 500 employees

That's not the question, since a company with a warehouse and 500 employees in California is not treated the same, as it is subject to a whole lot of rules and mandates that a single-employee remote-only foreign-HQ’d business is not.

Re:I employed a California resident, so now I’m subject to i... by vkou on Thursday April 28, 2022 @01:18PM (#31195250)
If I open a branch in California, and hire one person, is my firm subject to California's laws?

Yes, obviously. The part of my firm that is operating in California is.

Why does not having a physical location for the office change anything?

Re:I employed a California resident, so now I’m subject to i... by danabrams on Thursday April 28, 2022 @01:37PM (#31195541)
One way to look at it is that taxes and fees like this are the cost of living in such a place.

California is a very desirable place to live and to employ people, so they can charge through the nose, both in terms of taxes and bureaucracy, but also in terms of housing prices.

Low-tax sunbelt states are less desirable, ergo they have to compete on price, be it taxes, housing costs, or regulations. If Texas or Florida provided amenities that people wanted and a workforce as desirable as California, either there would be a massive influx to those states, 5, 10 million people a year, or they could charge people a lot of the pleasure of living or employing there.

Re:I employed a California resident, so now I’m subject to i... by rndgermandude on Thursday April 28, 2022 @02:09PM (#31196024)
I think this law is meant to prevent cases where some company hires sizable amounts of employees in California (25% of payroll as the blogpost states) and then shafts the state with some "loopholes". Think of a company with hundreds of employees in California, but which is technically a Delaware corporation.

I get that a state would want to prevent scenarios like that, and I think it's somewhat reasonable. I'd argue that a company with a sizable amount of employees in a state indeed can be said to have a business presence there. What's unreasonable is the lack of "minimums". California apparently tried to be reasonable by having the 25% rule, but failed miserably (maybe by design) by not considering very small companies, like the company from the article.

The franchise tax - in that amount and considering the lack of revenue - seems unreasonable too.

I don't know what paperwork is involved, but the 42 pages mentioned for a zero-revenue company with 1 employee sounds not just unreasonable but outright Kafkaesque.

A part of the blame goes to the author for not knowing the laws involved before hiring, but the major chunk of the blame, at least in my opinion, indeed goes to the state for creating absurd laws in the first place.

Re:I employed a California resident, so now I’m subject to i... by causi on Thursday April 28, 2022 @02:45PM (#31196547)
not just unreasonable but outright Kafkaesque.

That's pretty accurate for most of what the California state government does. For example, crushing the young and disadvantaged between a lack of housing availability due to rent control and a lack of new housing construction due to restrictive regulations and zoning.

Re:I employed a California resident, so now I’m subject to i... by giantg2 on Thursday April 28, 2022 @01:24PM (#31195332)
Just wait until you realize what states can do with filial responsibility. Your parent could be living in PA and run up a care bill at a nursing or living facility. Then even if you live in another state, they can stick you with the bill. You're not under their jurisdiction, nor do you have the power to force your parent to move to another state. You have no choices, no power.
Re:I employed a California resident, so now I’m subject to i... by MertsA on Thursday April 28, 2022 @01:29PM (#31195423)
Ooof, I knew about filial responsibility laws and the nursing homes abusing them but that sounds downright unconstitutional to enforce them on citizens without some kind of personal voluntary nexus to that state.
Re:I employed a California resident, so now I’m subject to i... by causi on Thursday April 28, 2022 @02:50PM (#31196633)
How in the world could such laws stand up to constitutional scrutiny?
Re:I employed a California resident, so now I’m subject to i... by giantg2 on Thursday April 28, 2022 @03:26PM (#31197090)
New to US law? (Just kidding)

This sort of stuff is really common.

Judicial complaints, discipline, and files are so secret that you can't get access to them even if there's exculpatory evidence in them. They were not made that secret by the legislature in most cases, but rather by the judiciary themselves (conflict of interest much?). The arguments used to support such secrecy don't even stand up to mild scrutiny. The main reason they cite is that disclosing complaints and discipline would undermine trust in the system. However, that would only be true if inappropriate action were being taken on those complaints.

How about police holding a charge against you they know is incorrect and carries pretrial restrictions? I feel this violates state and federal protections such as the 8th Ammendment's restriction on unusual punishment (because you can't just publish someone you know is innocent of the charged crime) and violations of the rules of criminal procedure. I've seen this happen, and the state police say that it's within their rights to hold a charge that is incorrect and imposes pretrial restrictions. A civil rights attorney I contacted said it was a violation of our rights, but the courts don't care if your rights are violated unless there was substantial financial damage. I also reported it to the DOJ since they have a division that will sue states to change policies, patterns, or practices that violate constitutional rights. I'm sure my submission went right in the shredder. They have so many important things to look at that they don't even care about this.

I had a prosecutor that had the information that it was an incorrect charge and our rights were violated. They also acted outside of the rules of criminal procedure to make sure the court wouldn't talk to us, blocking our ability to secure remote accommodation for our witness (a violation of the Bar's professional standards and an overreach of their authority given the rules of procedures did not allow for this). Guess what. The Bar will not even investigate misconduct claims against prosecutors unless the court declares misconduct occurred. So what are you investigating if you'll only look into after someone else made the determination? Worthless.

I had a recording of a magistrate yelling at the defense, showing bias against the defense (magistrate was a retired police chief and showed blatant favoritism for the trooper), and they violated the state constitution that guarantees defendants the right to be heard when he denied the request to hear a valid petition to dismiss, responding simply with "That's not gonna happen". I submitted a complaint for his behavior. I mean, the yelling was actually an example of misconduct given on the disciplinary board's site. You would think that a textbook example would be investigated. The only response I got was that there was not enough evidence to confirm any misconduct, which would include the uncurteous conducted listed in their site (yelling). How much evidence do you need beyond a recording and witnesses?

I could go on. The point is, nobody gives a shit about your rights (or mine) - not law enforcement, not the judiciary, none of the agencies/boards that supposedly oversee them.

If nobody enforces your rights, them do you actually have any?

Re:I employed a California resident, so now I’m subject to i... by Melatonic on Thursday April 28, 2022 @01:12PM (#31195140)
We are also living in a time of unprecedented amounts and ease of access to true remote work - are we really surprised the laws are behind the times?
Re:I employed a California resident, so now I’m subject to i... by mgbmtl on Thursday April 28, 2022 @01:49PM (#31195730)
Hiring freelancers, on the other hand, is usually pretty simple, since none of those laws apply.

The main risk, say, as a Canadian, is if I visit a US-based client, then I can't be officially "working while in the US", but it's OK if I do it remotely.

I freelance for my local Canadian company, and if my company sends me to the US, then it's fine, because the client pays my company, who then pays me. The US company is not paying me directly.

Re:I employed a California resident, so now I’m subject to i... by jleyank on Thursday April 28, 2022 @02:13PM (#31196077)
Without a valid work visa, they might not even let you (Canadian going to us) into the country. We’ve had salesman turned back when doing training cuz the border guards thought a fee was involved. Sales support was ok.
Re:I employed a California resident, so now I’m subject to i... by mgbmtl on Thursday April 28, 2022 @03:39PM (#31197242)
Yep you have to be very careful in how you express your intent.

I had a friend turned back because he said "the client pays me", when he actually meant "the client pays my company, and my company pays me" (he had an incorporated 1-person company, not freelancer).

When I was purely freelancer, I would say "I'm going to see a client, but it's only social, I'm not paid". Customs would frown, but let me pass. I've even had an agent argue "so you have nothing else to do on a weekday, and your work-friend either?" to which I said "yep, we're computer nerds", and he let me pass.

Re:I employed a California resident, so now I’m subject to i... by api on Thursday April 28, 2022 @12:54PM (#31194918)
> The fact states can reach outside their own jurisdiction is pretty insane in my opinion.

Isn't there some stuff about the Federal government governing interstate commerce? Of course IANAL.

Re:I employed a California resident, so now I’m subject to i... by arrosenberg on Thursday April 28, 2022 @01:00PM (#31194996)
The Interstate Commerce Clause allows the Congress to regulate interstate commerce. This is not that. If you hire an employee in a different state, you are establishing a business nexus in that state and subjecting yourself to its' laws and regulation - it's not a conflict between two states, it's just between you, the business owner, and the state which you have now established a nexus in.
Re:I employed a California resident, so now I’m subject to i... by SAI_Peregrinus on Thursday April 28, 2022 @03:22PM (#31197022)
The employee working in the state (in this case California) is a physical nexus of the company within that state. There's no reaching outside the state's jurisdiction, the company literally has a physical presence inside the state! Just because it's not using commercial real estate (offices) or doesn't have customer-facing shops there doesn't magically make the employees working there non-physical.
Re:I employed a California resident, so now I’m subject to i... by akvadrako on Thursday April 28, 2022 @05:58PM (#31198715)
What's wrong with 1099s?

Employment is really a special arrangement that only makes sense with governmemt intervention, like enforcing overtime or health care or something.