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Re:Supreme Court expands meaning of 'seizure' under 4th Amen... by infogulch on Friday March 26, 2021 @12:00AM (#26588616)
I don't find Gorsuch's quoted counterposition convincing. It seems to me that expanding "unreasonable seizure" to include "unreasonable attempted seizure" pretty easy logic to follow, assuming that's a valid summary of the decision.

Now if we can get a case to find the same for "civil asset forfeiture" / literally legal highway robbery by police, that would be great.

Re:Supreme Court expands meaning of 'seizure' under 4th Amen... by remarkEon on Friday March 26, 2021 @12:30AM (#26588758)
The quote is not really a good summary of his argument. The full Opinion elaborates much more on this, and his point is (from my reading) that it's a function of the "state" of the interaction between the police and the suspect, and what the definition of the word "seizure" means. I don't know if I find it convincing yet, but it's worth thinking about at least.

Full Opinion here[0], Dissent starts on page 22.

Full Oral Argument here[1], presented by the wonderful folks over at Oyez who really do wonderful work in cataloging the history of the Court (I'm not connected to them, just love what they do and I recommend folks listen to cases if only to sharpen your own rhetorical toolset).

[0] https://www.supremecourt.gov/opinions/20pdf/19-292_21p3.pdf

[1] https://www.oyez.org/cases/2020/19-292

Re:Supreme Court expands meaning of 'seizure' under 4th Amen... by infogulch on Friday March 26, 2021 @09:28AM (#26591873)
Thank you for adding value to my comment by adding details that would help a reader judge for themselves the validity of the summary. I will have to take a closer look, and encourage other readers to do so as well.
Re:Supreme Court expands meaning of 'seizure' under 4th Amen... by at-fates-hands on Friday March 26, 2021 @12:43AM (#26588818)
> I don't find Gorsuch's quoted counterposition convincing.

Gorsuch called the court’s opinion “novel” and “mistaken.” The majority “holds that a criminal suspect can be simultaneously seized and roaming at large. ... In two centuries filled with litigation over the 4th Amendment’s meaning, this court has never before adopted the majority’s definition of a ‘seizure.’ Neither the Constitution nor common sense can sustain it.”

Sounds a bit like Schrödinger's cat dilemma. Can a suspect be considered "seized" while at the same time roaming free? I think that was his point. You can't really expand the notion to attempted - doesn't it have to be one state or other?

Re:Supreme Court expands meaning of 'seizure' under 4th Amen... by michaelmrose on Friday March 26, 2021 @12:52AM (#26588858)
If you were arrested without good cause and then let free you were seized, past tense, and then free at the same time. The same is true if you were held momentarily then got free.

Being freed in 10 seconds or 10 years later doesn't make the seizure less unlawful and your current disposition should have little to do with deciding what WAS lawful at time of seizure.

Deciding that shooting a suspect unlawfully counts as detaining them is more challenging than the current state. I would prefer to call it attempted murder and prosecute the shooter.

Re:Supreme Court expands meaning of 'seizure' under 4th Amen... by amscanne on Friday March 26, 2021 @01:43AM (#26589080)
The suspect was, at no point during the time period relevant to complaint, under the physical control of the police. That's the point. You can say that you were "seized" if the physical control lasted 10 seconds or 10 years, but in this case there was only attempted seizure.
Re:Supreme Court expands meaning of 'seizure' under 4th Amen... by theossuary on Friday March 26, 2021 @11:19AM (#26593151)
I don't know, I think shooting somebody (or even shooting at somebody) puts them under your physical control.
Re:Supreme Court expands meaning of 'seizure' under 4th Amen... by AlexandrB on Friday March 26, 2021 @05:33AM (#26590208)
I don't get it. You can be charged with attempted murder or attempted robbery, where you failed to do the thing you're guilty of, just fine. Why is this different?
Re:Supreme Court expands meaning of 'seizure' under 4th Amen... by remarkEon on Friday March 26, 2021 @01:10AM (#26588934)
>Sounds a bit like Schrödinger's cat dilemma.

Yes. I recommend reading the whole opinion (both the Majority and the Dissent). It really is an interesting question.

Re:Supreme Court expands meaning of 'seizure' under 4th Amen... by dexterdog on Friday March 26, 2021 @12:04AM (#26588632)
I'm still waiting for a case to come up where a person kills a police officer for stealing from him in a civil asset forfeiture situation. They wouldn't want me on that jury.
Re:Supreme Court expands meaning of 'seizure' under 4th Amen... by dooglius on Friday March 26, 2021 @12:12AM (#26588672)
Juries don't sent precedents, you'd want to vote to convict if you want the matter appealed for the SCOTUS to hear it
Re:Supreme Court expands meaning of 'seizure' under 4th Amen... by raoa on Friday March 26, 2021 @12:49AM (#26588844)
Even better is the jury could refuse to convict and the question of jury nullification could be taken up by the Supreme Court.
Re:Supreme Court expands meaning of 'seizure' under 4th Amen... by JumpCrisscross on Friday March 26, 2021 @01:00AM (#26588888)
> the question of jury nullification could be taken up by the Supreme Court

The “question” of jury nullification is a fundamental flaw of the jury system. Legalising it invites mob rule. Directly challenging it undermines the prerogative of a jury. So...we just don’t talk about it. If it were to be solved, it would involve the abolition of the jury system. Which nobody wants.

Re:Supreme Court expands meaning of 'seizure' under 4th Amen... by cgriswald on Friday March 26, 2021 @01:12AM (#26588949)
Judges talk about it all the time, usually in less direct language, when they give the jury their instructions. The solution is: judges talk about it, but can't really stop a jury from doing it.

I don't think it is accurate to define it as 'mob rule.' Generally, in mob rule, the mob decides who is guilty and punishes them arbitrarily. In jury nullification, the mob decides who is technically guilty but unjustly punished (because the law is bad, because the punishment is too severed, etc..)

I won't lie to a judge or to anyone in court. But I won't ever convict someone if the death penalty is on the line. I expect to be excused, but if not... That isn't 'mob rule.' That's a power granted to me as a juror by the system. Presidents and Congress have grasped far more power than that without explicitly (and sometimes without even implicitly) being granted that power.

Re:Supreme Court expands meaning of 'seizure' under 4th Amen... by JumpCrisscross on Friday March 26, 2021 @01:59AM (#26589146)
> In jury nullification, the mob decides who is technically guilty but unjustly punished (because the law is bad, because the punishment is too severed, etc..

Jury nullification is a jury acting on its own accord, without respect to the law.

Overruling unjust punishment is the archetype. The Northern jury nullifying Fugitive Slave Act convictions, for instance. The flip side of that coin is Southern juries nullifying lynching convictions. One can make a value judgement on that not being jury nullification, but it's the same mechanism.

Re:Supreme Court expands meaning of 'seizure' under 4th Amen... by cgriswald on Friday March 26, 2021 @02:27AM (#26589305)
I remain unconvinced. It is the law that gives juries this power. Can it be used for what you or I consider bad purposes? Sure. But so can any other power granted by the law. It is generally accepted that powers, both explicit and implicit can be used by the government. This includes elected officials and unelected bureaucrats. I see no reason not to extend the same to jurors.
Re:Supreme Court expands meaning of 'seizure' under 4th Amen... by JumpCrisscross on Friday March 26, 2021 @02:32AM (#26589325)
> It is the law that gives juries this power. Can it be used for what you or I consider bad purposes?

The law grants this power to juries under the premise that they behave objectively. If jury nullification became commonplace, I would expect we'd see calls to join the rest of the world in abolishing popular juries. I think that would be a net loss.

Re:Supreme Court expands meaning of 'seizure' under 4th Amen... by tremon on Friday March 26, 2021 @05:40AM (#26590245)
Are you asserting that a jury can never objectively reach a nullifying verdict?
Re:Supreme Court expands meaning of 'seizure' under 4th Amen... by cycomanic on Friday March 26, 2021 @03:22AM (#26589582)
Why would it be? I have yet to see a convincing argument that popular juries make better (more just) judgements.
Re:Supreme Court expands meaning of 'seizure' under 4th Amen... by FpUser on Friday March 26, 2021 @01:50AM (#26589117)
If I believe that the law as applied to particular case is unjust I would nullify without second thought. Fuck the law if it goes against basic human values. And I am glad that as fucked as US justice system is it still allows for such outcome. At least in theory.
Re:Supreme Court expands meaning of 'seizure' under 4th Amen... by tehjoker on Friday March 26, 2021 @02:20AM (#26589265)
It's funny that so much energy is expended talking about how Jury Nullification is a flaw in the system when the courts themselves can simply overrule congress by agreeing with each other due to Marbury vs Madison (which was essentially judicial nullification).

While nullification has mostly been used for ill in the past, at least it's a grassroots democratic process. Why should someone be punished if their peers don't think it should be a crime? That's pretty small d democratic, much more so than elections where your vote barely counts.

Re:Supreme Court expands meaning of 'seizure' under 4th Amen... by JumpCrisscross on Friday March 26, 2021 @02:23AM (#26589283)
> Marbury vs Madison (which was essentially judicial nullification)

Last I checked, juries aren't co-equal with Congress.

> Why should someone be punished if their peers don't think it should be a crime?

If cases become a matter of selecting your sampling bias, the legal system becomes unpredictable. That, in turn, subverts the rule of law--you no longer know if what you're doing is legal based on the law per se.

If jury nullification becomes commonplace, the jury system would need to be revised or thrown out. If you have trouble imagining this, imagine a group you are highly unsympathetic to, now put them in a zip code, now put them on a jury, now write the headlines they rulings would produce.

Re:Supreme Court expands meaning of 'seizure' under 4th Amen... by tehjoker on Friday March 26, 2021 @02:32AM (#26589326)
I'd point out that until Marbury v Madison the supreme court was not a co-equal branch. It was simply an interpreter of what congress passed with no ability to declare things unconstitutional. It was a power grab by the courts.

You can claim declaring laws unconstitutional is kind of an implied power, but it is certainly no where in the text.

Other thinkers have said that legalism is fake and there is really only contests between political factions with a legal gloss to pretend things are fair and objective. If you take that critique seriously, then the courts shouldn't have that power and congress should decide what is constitutional as they are actually elected and represent legitimate authority.

Re:Supreme Court expands meaning of 'seizure' under 4th Amen... by JumpCrisscross on Friday March 26, 2021 @02:42AM (#26589386)
> If you take that critique seriously, then the courts shouldn't have that power and congress should decide what is constitutional as they are actually elected and represent legitimate authority

Philosophically, I like this argument. Practically, dear god.

The U.S. system was supposed to balance the stability of monarchy (executive) and aristocracy (judiciary) against the justness of democracy (legislative). Our executive is, by design and decidedly, not monarchic. That removes a "slow thinking" system, leaving the "fast thinking" executive and legislature. We see the results in our political volatility.

Given the last two hundred years, Marbury was right. We needed a dampener, so to speak. People not incentivized by poll numbers.

P.S. Thank you. This has been a fun discussion and distraction.

Re:Supreme Court expands meaning of 'seizure' under 4th Amen... by tehjoker on Friday March 26, 2021 @10:29AM (#26592579)
Always enjoy talking constitutionalism. :D
Re:Supreme Court expands meaning of 'seizure' under 4th Amen... by tehjoker on Friday March 26, 2021 @02:25AM (#26589293)
You are right, but I can also imagine the inverse where authoritarian laws cause activists or whistleblowers to be in jeopardy in contravention of all decency. The unevenness at the local level is problematic, but so is evenness of really bad laws.

For example, a jury should feel free to simply dismiss charges brought under the espionage act.

I should also point out that nullification was unfortunately mostly used to acquit lynchers. I'm not sure why precisely that only that particular heinous act inspired enough solidarity to nullify the law as opposed to anything good, so historically nullification has been mostly a bad thing.

Re:Supreme Court expands meaning of 'seizure' under 4th Amen... by JumpCrisscross on Friday March 26, 2021 @02:30AM (#26589317)
> where authoritarian laws cause activists or whistleblowers to be in jeopardy in contravention of all decency

The short answer is jury nullification is an unavoidable thing. If matters get bad enough, it will kick in. (Though if things get that bad, they'll be eliminated.) That doesn't mean it should be encouraged.

The moment you let juries start deciding whether the law is just, versus deciding if a law was broken, you remove the veneer of objectivity that has kept our courts somewhat sacred. It also becomes problematic for lawyers to remove jurists for ridiculous political views, as it becomes a First Amendment issue. Currently, that isn't a problem--your political views don't matter. Only your objectivity does.

Re:Supreme Court expands meaning of 'seizure' under 4th Amen... by cwillu on Friday March 26, 2021 @04:01AM (#26589745)
> The short answer is jury nullification is an unavoidable thing. If matters get bad enough, it will kick in. (Though if things get that bad, they'll be eliminated.) That doesn't mean it should be encouraged.

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Bang%E2%80%93bang_control with all of its flaws

Re:Supreme Court expands meaning of 'seizure' under 4th Amen... by krapp on Friday March 26, 2021 @08:39AM (#26591361)
I think the fundamental flaw is failing to recognize that the jury system is intended to be a form of mob rule, and that "jury nullification" should be considered a feature, not a bug.
Re:Supreme Court expands meaning of 'seizure' under 4th Amen... by jakeogh on Friday March 26, 2021 @03:44AM (#26589668)
It's not a flaw. The concept of a jury is meaningless without it.
Re:Supreme Court expands meaning of 'seizure' under 4th Amen... by vincentmarle on Friday March 26, 2021 @01:14AM (#26588956)
> If it were to be solved, it would involve the abolition of the jury system. Which nobody wants.

Well, 90% of the world is doing just fine without the jury system. What is so great about it anyways?

Re:Supreme Court expands meaning of 'seizure' under 4th Amen... by JumpCrisscross on Friday March 26, 2021 @02:17AM (#26589253)
> What is so great about it anyways?

It's the sole popular check on the judiciary, the unelected branch of government.

Re:Supreme Court expands meaning of 'seizure' under 4th Amen... by aYsY4dDQ2NrcNzA on Friday March 26, 2021 @01:41AM (#26589072)
I haven’t read the Federalist Papers, but I would assume that they touched on the reasons why the right to a jury trial was included in the Constitution.
Re:Supreme Court expands meaning of 'seizure' under 4th Amen... by gameswithgo on Friday March 26, 2021 @02:42AM (#26589385)
mob rules is sometimes the only defense we have against the oligarchy
Re:Supreme Court expands meaning of 'seizure' under 4th Amen... by retrac on Friday March 26, 2021 @12:09PM (#26593770)
For your interest, jury nullification has been addressed directly by the Supreme Court in Canada. They reasoned that a judge does indeed has a duty to stop jury nullification with proper jury instruction, and by preventing council from raising the prospect of nullification to the jury:

> It is no doubt true that juries have a de facto power to disregard the law as stated to the jury by the judge. We cannot enter the jury room. The jury is never called upon to explain the reasons which lie behind a verdict. It may even be true that in some limited circumstances the private decision of a jury to refuse to apply the law will constitute, in the words of a Law Reform Commission of Canada working paper, "the citizen's ultimate protection against oppressive laws and the oppressive enforcement of the law" [...] But recognizing this reality is a far cry from suggesting that counsel may encourage a jury to ignore a law they do not support or to tell a jury that it has a right to do so.

But as they noted, they also reasoned that jury nullification is an integral and unavoidable part of the system, and that leaving juries the final say on the verdict, without appeal, is the intended effect, as a firestop against government abuse. They also reasoned there's no way to actually address jury nullification, beyond ensuring that the jury is properly instructed, without effectively getting rid of juries altogether.

The Canadian cases cite an unusual amount of American and British non-binding precedent (even for the Canadian courts, which tend to borrow freely from other common law jurisdictions when relevant) for their legal reasoning. The legal logic in the Canadian cases closely follows American rulings on jury nullification in the appellate courts, even though it hasn't gone to SCOTUS. The principles and constitutional rights in question are basically identical. I'd be very surprised if the American Supreme Court didn't issue a carbon copy ruling on the topic.

Re:Supreme Court expands meaning of 'seizure' under 4th Amen... by cgriswald on Friday March 26, 2021 @01:07AM (#26588920)
A prosecutor can't appeal an acquittal. Jury nullification is only considered in cases where (for instance) judges instruct juries in ways that prohibit them from considering jury nullification and the defendant is found guilty.

The reality is jury nullification is here to stay because jurors are not required to explain their findings nor can they be punished for finding things 'wrongly.' Judges, per the SCOTUS, are free to discourage this behavior, but there's nothing to stop it and no imaginable mechanism to even bring such a stoppage to the SCOTUS.

Re:Supreme Court expands meaning of 'seizure' under 4th Amen... by elliekelly on Friday March 26, 2021 @01:14AM (#26588959)
I’m not the person you replied to but I believe the “question” of jury nullification they were alluding to was whether or not it can be argued by the defendant. I’m not a criminal lawyer but from what I recall the answer (for lawyers representing defendants, at least) is no.

Again, not a criminal lawyer, but I doubt a judge would ever instruct a jury with respect to nullification. It’s not relevant. The role of the jury is fact finder. The function of the jury is not to determine right from wrong or good law from bad law.

Re:Supreme Court expands meaning of 'seizure' under 4th Amen... by cgriswald on Friday March 26, 2021 @01:41AM (#26589070)
A judge did and it went to the SCOTUS:

https://reason.com/2017/06/20/although-juries-can-acquit-the...

Quoth the judge:

> You cannot substitute your sense of justice, whatever that means, for your duty to follow the law, whether you agree with it or not. It is not for you to determine whether the law is just or whether the law is unjust. That cannot be your task. There is no such thing as valid jury nullification. You would violate your oath and the law if you willfully brought a verdict contrary to the law given to you in this case.

On the juries I’ve served the instructions were extremely limiting and there was an implicit “no jury nullification here”, but they were not as direct as the judge in this case.

Re:Supreme Court expands meaning of 'seizure' under 4th Amen... by FpUser on Friday March 26, 2021 @01:59AM (#26589148)
One of the things SCOTUS said in regards to this particular case: "While jurors undoubtedly should be told to follow the law, the statement that there is no valid jury nullification misstates the role of nullification because an acquittal is valid, even if it resulted from nullification."

There is also no implied punishment so the judge in case overstepped.

Re:Supreme Court expands meaning of 'seizure' under 4th Amen... by cgriswald on Friday March 26, 2021 @02:15AM (#26589240)
I agree that the judge overstepped. The SCOTUS didn’t. They can say whatever they want in their decision but if a judge can say that jury nullification is invalid and the conviction is still upheld it means a judge can say that jury nullification is invalid.
Re:Supreme Court expands meaning of 'seizure' under 4th Amen... by FpUser on Friday March 26, 2021 @08:04AM (#26591049)
>"conviction is still upheld"

There was no nullification in that particular case. If there was judge can say whatever s/he wants but there would be no conviction.

Re:Supreme Court expands meaning of 'seizure' under 4th Amen... by Godel_unicode on Friday March 26, 2021 @12:57AM (#26588874)
Is there a question of jury nullification?
Re:Supreme Court expands meaning of 'seizure' under 4th Amen... by 1cvmask on Friday March 26, 2021 @12:44AM (#26588821)
Maybe he wants to convict and that’s why you wouldn’t want him on the jury????
Re:Supreme Court expands meaning of 'seizure' under 4th Amen... by curryst on Friday March 26, 2021 @11:15AM (#26593125)
I would encourage you to read the opinion; it's a lot more nuanced than that. This bit struck me:

Today’s majority disputes none of this. It accepts that a seizure of the inanimate objects mentioned in the Fourth Amendment (houses, papers, and effects) requires possession. Ante, at 4. And when it comes to persons, the majority agrees (as Hodari D. held) that a seizure in response to a “show of authority” takes place if and when the suspect submits to an officer’s possession. Ante, at 15. The majority insists that a different rule should apply only in cases where an officer “touches” the suspect. Here—and here alone—possession is not required. So, under the majority’s logic, we are quite literally asked to believe the officers in this case “seized” Ms. Torres’s person, but not her car, when they shot both and both continued speeding down the highway.

He goes on to mention that the term "seizure" is used in reference to 4 objects in the 4th Amendment, and that prior case law forbids interpreting the same term to mean different things depending on the object being modified. From the opinion:

To “[a]scrib[e] various meanings” to a single word, we have observed, is to “render meaning so malleable” that written laws risk “becom[ing] susceptible to individuated interpretation.” Ratzlaf, 510 U. S., at 143 (internal quotation marks omitted).

I think I'm with Gorsuch here. While I do think the officers acted unreasonably and should be punished, the 4th Amendment doesn't seem to apply. You end up with weird and inconsistent cases. If an officer shoots at someone shooting at him, and ends up hitting a hostage in the house, has he arrested the hostage? Probably not, so now we have to add another layer of complexity in determining whether the officer intended to arrest that person, or "accidentally arrested" them. It just becomes incoherent. I also find it notable that the majority declines to comment on Gorsuch's hypotheticals like lasers or tear gas. Has everyone who's been tear gassed been arrested? What if the wind blows it a different direction? The resulting case law is going to be a mess.

I agree that "unreasonable attempted seizure" should be illegal, there's a gap in the law there. I just think it's up to the legislative branch to fix that. The case law doesn't seem to support the majority opinion; it reads to me like they started with a conclusion and worked backwards.

Re:Supreme Court expands meaning of 'seizure' under 4th Amen... by 8note on Friday March 26, 2021 @12:59PM (#26594349)
I would say yes, everyone who has been tear gassed has been arested. The answer to these "accidentally arested people by tear gassing them" is that tear gas is not a suitable tool for aresting people when there are nearby houses, or peaceful protests
Re:Supreme Court expands meaning of 'seizure' under 4th Amen... by chmod600 on Friday March 26, 2021 @02:32AM (#26589327)
As a general rule I never trust a news outlet to accurately summarize a supreme court opinion.
Re:Supreme Court expands meaning of 'seizure' under 4th Amen... by infogulch on Friday March 26, 2021 @09:23AM (#26591808)
Neither do I, but I didn't have the time to spend hours in a deep-dive to read the court opinion directly.

So given the choice between 1: Say nothing, which is known to not spread lies but has no potential to help anyone, and 2: Extend the article's potential misrepresentation by repeating it as fact, instead I chose option 3: Include my confidence interval in my comment explicitly which enables readers such as yourself to make their own judgment call, but which opens me up to obvious "criticism" by people who are so thrown off by the straightforwardness of this strategy that they can't help themselves from repeating the clearly stated choice while pinning it with their own judgement.

Think of it like this: my comment is a function with a parameter for "trust of this article's summary" for which I trust my reader to provide a value that works well for them, and in turn I give them a comment that they can evaluate themselves.

I hope more people choose option 3, but I can sympathize with why they wouldn't. :)

Re:Supreme Court expands meaning of 'seizure' under 4th Amen... by cma on Friday March 26, 2021 @01:26AM (#26589000)
> literally legal highway robbery by police, that would be great.

That's not true. I believe just the burden of proof is more similar to civil (preponderance of the evidence) than criminal (beyond a reasonable doubt). It still seems unreasonable, but not literally legal highway robbery.

Re:Supreme Court expands meaning of 'seizure' under 4th Amen... by adgjlsfhk1 on Friday March 26, 2021 @01:42AM (#26589077)
This is false. https://www.law.cornell.edu/wex/civil_forfeiture. Once the assets are seized, there is a burden of proof on the owner to prove that the property was not guilty.
Re:Supreme Court expands meaning of 'seizure' under 4th Amen... by cma on Friday March 26, 2021 @02:01AM (#26589167)
I should have said standard of proof instead of burden of proof. I believe it is under a preponderance standard (>50%), not a beyond a reasonable doubt (that it isn't guilty) standard.

Maybe in some states it is that you would only keep whatever fraction of certainty you proved, as is done in civil disputes in some places?

Re:Supreme Court expands meaning of 'seizure' under 4th Amen... by chrismcb on Friday March 26, 2021 @01:40AM (#26589066)
That isn't my understanding of civil forfeiture. Basically they accuse your stuff and take it. Now you have to convince the court that it isn't I'll gotten gains.... That is if you have the time and money to fight it.