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Re:Why no Roman industrial revolution? by Animats on Friday August 26, 2022 @02:24PM (#32611002)
There's another route to an industrial revolution that might have happened - steel.

The British industrial revolution was built from iron, not steel. Mass production of steel didn't appear until the 1880s, with the Bessemer converter. This was half a century after the deployment of successful railroads.

Iron and steel was known to the Roman empire. The steel wasn't very good, even by the standards of antiquity, but it was good enough for short swords and some tools. They got as far as the "bloom" process, but no further. Despite this, there was a modest iron and steel industry.

A Bessemer converter is a simple thing. It's a big iron vessel lined with brick attached to a furnace and blower. Roman ironworkers could have built one. It's the metallurgy that's hard. Bessemer built the thing, but steel quality was random at first. Robert Mushet, a metallurgist, after about 10,000 experiments, figured out how to get consistent quality from the process. The basic idea, from Wikipedia, is to apply enough heat and air to burn off almost all the carbon in iron ore, leaving pure iron. Then add 'spiegel glanz' or spiegel eisen, a "double carbonate of iron and manganese found in the Rhenish mountains" which was iron, 86…25; manganese, 8…50; and carbon, 5…25. Controlled amounts of manganese and carbon are thus put back into the molten iron, and steel comes out.

A number of cultures figured out steel by accident. Thus, Japanese steel, Damascus steel, etc. Various trace additives - vanadium, molybdenum, etc. were used. The Roman empire got as far as mediocre steel. But the process was neither understood nor reproducible at scale. Mass production required enough analytical chemistry to do quality control on the ingredients.

So an interesting speculation is what might have happened if an early culture had some people really into finding out what stuff is made of. That leads to analytical chemistry. Some Roman philosopher might have discovered that if you grind rocks to a powder, mix with water, and spray into a steady flame, colored light comes out. If you look at that colored light through a prism, you see sharp lines, in the same places for the same materials, which indicate the elemental composition of the material. If they'd happened to talk to someone in the Roman army responsible for a sword factory having yield problems, they might have gotten some samples of the minerals being used. That might have led to the beginnings of metallurgy quality control. As there is in a modern steel plant, there would be somebody in a little room not too far from the furnaces doing analysis on the raw materials.

Steel would still be somewhat expensive, but with a repeatable production process, swords and knives would get better. Then agricultural implements and other tools. If you need to plow hard or rocky ground, a steel plow is a big help.

The next big breakthrough in an an agrarian society with some steelmaking capability would be a reaper. The McCormick reaper was the first machine that really boosted agricultural production. That's what kicked the world past sustenance-level agriculture.

So that's an unlikely, but not impossible, alternative path to an industrial revolution.

Re:Why no Roman industrial revolution? by byw on Friday August 26, 2022 @03:20PM (#32611619)
The Song Dynasty (960–1279 AD) was actually close to industrialization with high steel and coal productions, but apparently never took off due to the lack of a middle class to purchase the manufactured goods.

https://www.wikiwand.com/en/Industrialization_of_China#/Hist...

Re:Why no Roman industrial revolution? by tuatoru on Friday August 26, 2022 @05:17PM (#32612869)
This is a key point that seems to be forever in the blind spot of many people who focus on production/supply and technologies.

Without demand, there is no supply. In highly unequal societies there is no motivation to improve production efficiency--rather the opposite.

Re:Why no Roman industrial revolution? by jsolson on Saturday August 27, 2022 @03:33PM (#32622324)
> Without demand, there is no supply.

An economics professor of mine put it as "markets are created by demand, not supply." That was nearly 20 years ago, but it's really stuck with me.

As the linked article notes, the precursors for technological innovations were present in many places, but many of those places lacked one or more components of demand flow to finance the required innovation. Only after demand for industrial innovation is present do gaps in the supply chain come into play.

Re:Why no Roman industrial revolution? by skybrian on Saturday August 27, 2022 @03:56PM (#32622566)
Seems like a false dichotomy? It's of course both. Product-market fit is essential, but also, someone has to do the work, and supply constraints are important.
Re:Why no Roman industrial revolution? by eru on Saturday August 27, 2022 @12:52AM (#32615832)
The Song were extremely advanced for their time.

They also invented gunpowder and paper money.

They were basically an early modern civilisation, when Europe was still in the middle ages.

What do you know about inequality during the Song dynasty?

Re:Why no Roman industrial revolution? by yywwbbn on Saturday August 27, 2022 @07:13AM (#32617790)
Majority of people were still subsistence farmers. The massive transfer of wealth from the colonies and trade (particularly in England and the Netherlands) was what allowed Europe to jump ahead.

In many ways pre-industrial economy was a zero sum game for someone to be rich and afford to have enough capital to invest into developing industrial production somebody had to be poor. This mean that 90%+ of all people in China and in every other relatively large country lived in extreme poverty.

European colonial powers were simply the first to outsource this dynamic into other continents. While most people in Europe did not directly benefit from native or African slaves in the Americas the transfer of wealth allowed them to import grain and other products from abroad which simultaneously freed up enough labor to develop mining and other industries and increased the purchasing power enough to create significant demand for manufactured goods.

No reforms in China or any ancient empire could have achieved this as long as 90% of their populations were confined to permanently remaining subsistence farmers. Also the Song created paper money because they did not have enough gold and silver it didn’t really offer any benefits besides that and had significant risks. Every attempt to institute paper money, not directly tied to gold or silver prior to the 20th century failed.

Re:Why no Roman industrial revolution? by ETH_start on Sunday August 28, 2022 @12:32AM (#32625787)
>>European colonial powers were simply the first to outsource this dynamic into other continents. While most people in Europe did not directly benefit from native or African slaves in the Americas the transfer of wealth allowed them to import grain and other products from abroad which simultaneously freed up enough labor to develop mining and other industries and increased the purchasing power enough to create significant demand for manufactured goods.

Is there any evidence to support this? I remember reading that exploitive practices like slavery added very little to Europe's GDP. There seems to be processes - like advancing textile production and coal mining technology and metallurgy - that began long before the age of colonialism, and thus would likely have continued even in the absence of the slave trade.

Re:Why no Roman industrial revolution? by eru on Sunday August 28, 2022 @12:56AM (#32625889)
Yes, the Dutch and later the English mostly got rich off of capitalism and trade (and early industrialization) at home.

Portugal and Spain had huge colonial empires, but that did not drive any industrialization or really long term wealth explosion like the capitalism and the industrial revolution did.

Re:Why no Roman industrial revolution? by tuatoru on Saturday August 27, 2022 @07:13AM (#32617792)
The Song invented gunpowder, but did not put it into mass production.

Paper money was certainly adopted. There was a class of administrators who could see the advantages, and so there was demand.

Re:Why no Roman industrial revolution? by frozenport on Saturday August 27, 2022 @02:44AM (#32616427)
The article here talks about demand.

In Britain the demand for coal was independent of social equality. In the sense that everybody needed it to stay alive, especially during the winter.

Re:Why no Roman industrial revolution? by tuatoru on Saturday August 27, 2022 @07:15AM (#32617800)
English society was much less unequal than those of the Yangtze Valley or Gujarat at the same time. Laborers' wages were over five times higher in England according to recent reconstructions.
Re:Why no Roman industrial revolution? by _hypx on Friday August 26, 2022 @09:46PM (#32614761)
I'm going to make a rather blunt argument that the difference was the arrival of New World foods, allowing for much larger populations than was possible in China at the time. We have had too many civilizations supposedly "came close" to industrialization but never did. Something more is holding them back. And since so much of civilization was the result of having a large enough population to develop the next stage of advancement, this could easily just be another case of that. Once huge populations became possibly in the 16th century onwards, the industrial revolution suddenly became possible in a way it never could before.
Re:Why no Roman industrial revolution? by syntheweave on Friday August 26, 2022 @10:42PM (#32615108)
I would also contend that the New World had an impact, but a different one than just the natural resources. Rather, it's one of the pieces in the puzzle of "modernity", and modernity preceded industrialization as a philosophical end to which society coordinated its actions.

Ancient Rome was not just agrarian but tributary in nature: the social roles creating slaves and citizens were predefined through conquests. The empire had trade, and trade helped it prosper, but trade was not respected as a foundational ideology as was the case later with merchantalism.

The reason why Britain felt pressure to be an exporter was because this was where the dominant ideology ultimately led: put more assets on the national balance sheet, externalize the liabilities. That emerged from the struggle between the colonial powers of Europe over the course of centuries. The Crusades brought back new ideas, and later, so did the Spanish explorations. At first the dynamic was primarily derived from tribute, and the early conquests had a focus on bullionism: getting gold and silver. But it soon became clear that sugar, cotton, etc were more fundamental to prosperity, and by the 1700's, this had been refined by the utilitarian philosophers into a mode of thought about trade, ethics and invention that remains close to what we accept today.

In the prior societies, this wasn't a topic of discussion, and therefore new ideas were suspicious by default. So even if you had the idea to explore some topic, you needed to be close to, or part of, the nobility to have an opportunity to try. And a big part of early modern Europe was that the inventors and philosophers were always upsetting some noble and running away to the next country over.

So, while Britain got there first, continued emphasis on trade - both with the Americas and the East - would have eventually created the conditions for industry somewhere in Europe.

Re:Why no Roman industrial revolution? by CRConrad on Friday September 02, 2022 @09:41PM (#32697735)
> the early conquests had a focus on bullionism: getting gold and silver. But it soon became clear that sugar, cotton, etc were more fundamental to prosperity

Maybe less clear to Spain, which did perhaps too well with the silver? Which may have been a contributing reason to the rise of the British (and Dutch) colonial empire(s), because not getting that huge influx of silver and gold, their merchants had more incentive to keep their eyes open for other ways to make money. (Just a WAG, not a historian.)

Re:Why no Roman industrial revolution? by Jensson on Friday August 26, 2022 @10:36PM (#32615066)
> I'm going to make a rather blunt argument that the difference was the arrival of New World foods, allowing for much larger populations than was possible in China at the time.

Potatoes and rice are roughly equivalent in terms of how many people they can feed. Potatoes was revolutionary to Europe because they didn't have rice, but would be nothing special to China.

Re:Why no Roman industrial revolution? by bobthepanda on Saturday August 27, 2022 @12:08AM (#32615551)
Corn and potato are important, but not necessarily as their whole form.

They were, however, often processed into corn and potato starch, which is pretty common in Chinese cooking.

Re:Why no Roman industrial revolution? by 7952 on Saturday August 27, 2022 @05:21AM (#32617251)
There could be a difference in labour required though and that is they key. Potatos made workers available who were not needed for farming.
Re:Why no Roman industrial revolution? by _hypx on Saturday August 27, 2022 @01:45PM (#32621348)
Potatoes are a lot more nutritious than rice though. Plus being easier to grow and in far more places. You also have to include things like maize, sweet potato, squash, etc.
Re:Why no Roman industrial revolution? by eru on Saturday August 27, 2022 @12:53AM (#32615844)
Interestingly the new world foods made it to China rather quickly, too.

Chinese people took to peanuts (and chilis) rather eagerly. I think it took only 50 years between peanuts arriving in Eurasia for the first time, and them becoming a staple food in parts of China.

Re:Why no Roman industrial revolution? by DFHippie on Saturday September 03, 2022 @11:49AM (#32703008)
Peanuts are actually an old world food. They are native to Africa.
Re:Why no Roman industrial revolution? by dredmorbius on Friday August 26, 2022 @09:18PM (#32614599)
Look up Joseph Needham's Science and Civilisation in China for an absolute mind-blowing realisation of the development of Chinese technology.

In fairness, the extent was largely unknown to Chinese of the time (the project began in the 1950s, it remains in process).

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Science_and_Civilisation_in_Ch...

Re:Why no Roman industrial revolution? by eru on Saturday August 27, 2022 @12:55AM (#32615860)
Andrande's 'Gunpowder Age' is also worth reading.

You can also read his 'How Taiwan Became Chinese' for free online: http://www.gutenberg-e.org/andrade/

> In 1600, Taiwan was a wild land, inhabited by headhunters and visited mainly by pirates and fishermen. A hundred years later it was a prefecture of the Chinese Empire, home to a hundred thousand Chinese colonists. What accounted for this transition? How did Taiwan become Chinese?

Re:Why no Roman industrial revolution? by dalbasal on Friday August 26, 2022 @03:15PM (#32611569)
I wonder to what extent any of these ancient industrial revolutions would have been similar to the modern one. Mass produced crucible steel certainly would have given Rome even more military and trade might, but it's hard to see what else it leads to.

Same for the flying shuttle or steam engine. Water wheels and such were used by Romans. Romans liked useful engineering. But, I don't think they were a keystone technology. Rome could have still been Rome without water wheels, perhaps. What would they have powered with engines, and how much of it? Would they have learned to to mine coal?

The flying shuttle is even more interesting to me, because it's more independant. Like steel, textile is a trade good. Automated weaving probably would have become widespread in rome, and changed the economy.

I agree with you though. There are multiple routes to industrialisation. Metallurgical techniques could have been invented much earlier. Historical happenstance. Some important metallurgical techniques may have been invented, kept secret, and eventually forgotten. There are lots of curious, ancient steel artifacts in museums and even more in lore.

Metallurgy may have been retarded by millenia, because secrecy.

Re:Why no Roman industrial revolution? by AS37 on Friday August 26, 2022 @03:14PM (#32611557)
I wonder about what, a thousand years from now, people will look back on us and say 'if they just did this, they could have discovered that thing centuries earlier'.
Re:Why no Roman industrial revolution? by spullara on Friday August 26, 2022 @05:25PM (#32612945)
Room temperature & pressure super-conductors, if they exist, might be so rare that you have to accidentally find them and that could happen any time after we have electricity if they are simple enough compounds.
Re:Why no Roman industrial revolution? by throwawayacc2 on Friday August 26, 2022 @06:24PM (#32613433)
We might also be the pinnacle of civilisation. It is not outside the realm of possibility a perfect storm of nuclear war, climate change, fossil fuel depletion and the resulting collapse in civilisation replaced by warlords and distrust of the technology that cause the calamity pushes us to a pre industrial society. Sure some books will survive but good luck recovering data from ancient computers when there’s no electricity.

Perhaps in many thousands of years civilisation would somewhat recover but by then nearly everything would have to be rediscovered.

This in fact is one of the possible answers to the Fermi paradox. Intelligent life besides us does exist but has regressed to a pre technological state and is unable to get back due to depleted resources. Thus it is unable to make its self known.

Re:Why no Roman industrial revolution? by jprd on Friday August 26, 2022 @08:08PM (#32614210)
While a completely valid theory (and thank you for sharing it here), that is super dark.

There just seems to be so much we know we don't know, that to theorize we're the pinnacle of what civilization can be is...gauche? Insanely short sighted and Sol-centric?

I dunno, I'm obviously not a theoretical physicist or conducting well thought out experiments testing those theories - but it just seems defeatist and lame.

We have a visible Universe that has rules and guardrails - that's bonkers and needs to be hacked more.

Re:Why no Roman industrial revolution? by cwillu on Friday August 26, 2022 @11:42PM (#32615416)
“It was said that in the Age of Legends, there had been horseless carriages that drank the black blood of the earth, long since drained dry. But then, it was said that in the Age of Legends, men had flown to the moon on a pillar of fire. Who took such stories seriously?”

https://www.lesswrong.com/posts/Ro6QSQaKdhfpeeGpr/why-safety...

Re:Why no Roman industrial revolution? by brabel on Saturday August 27, 2022 @04:00AM (#32616853)
Beautiful text.

About the end of the Chinese civilization technological advantage in the 16th century:

> War had ravaged the lands, laying waste whole cities. Plague had struck, killing millions, men, women and children buried in mass graves...

> (but) the force that put an end to the Chinese arc of progress was deadlier by far than all of these together, yet seemingly intangible as metaphysics. By the 16th century, the fleets had vanished, the proximate cause political; to this day there is no consensus on the underlying factors.

Also:

> The saving grace has always been the outside: when one nation, one civilization, faltered, another picked up the torch and carried on; but with the march of globalization, there may soon be no more outside.

Perhaps the direction the world is going in the last couple of years, with less unity, is not that bad.

Re:Why no Roman industrial revolution? by leaflets2 on Saturday August 27, 2022 @06:46AM (#32617650)
> less unity

Angrier and angrier narcissist dictators with nukes? -- less unity yes. Does it increase safety?

Yes beautiful text

Re:Why no Roman industrial revolution? by brabel on Saturday August 27, 2022 @03:20PM (#32622168)
It's a double-edged sword... if we want to have multiple competing civilizations, it's unavoidable they will conflict with each other (I'm pretty sure you'll always view the "other" guys as angry and evil no matter what they do, just as "they" see you the same way).

That may be a necessary evil though in the really long term.

Re:Why no Roman industrial revolution? by leaflets2 on Saturday August 27, 2022 @04:49PM (#32623039)
Personally, I both agree and disagree. I think with more intelligent humans, harder for want-to-be dictators to manipulate, we could have different cultures and countries, and everyone friends, just enjoying the differences, as tourists and exchange students, no conflicts.

But with the humans of today, then yes I agree that conflict is unavoidable

Re:Why no Roman industrial revolution? by brabel on Sunday August 28, 2022 @03:35AM (#32626512)
But you could apply your theory to today: what is it that triggers most conflicts today? It seems to be it's most ideology. The West is highly ideological (like everyone else, it must be said) while not acknowledging it.

Could you "be friends" with authoritarian countries led by dictators? If not, why?

Many countries' populations appear to see authoritarian regimes as the preferred way to govern, from China to Iran, Russia to parts of Southern and Eastern Europe. You can claim most people would prefer something else but are silenced, but I don't agree with that, as countries "forced" to be democratic, like Afghanistan and Iraq, unequivocably go back to being authoritarian as soon as the "oppressors" leave.

It's official policy of the USA to spread democracy: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Democracy_promotion_by_the_Uni...

If you're the ruler of a non-democratic country, you would take this kind of behaviour as kindly as the USA would take any other country trying to spread authoritarianism, wouldn't you?

Whether one ideological belief system is more correct than another, or more just, is kind of beyond the point (and very difficult to prove objectively anyway)... my point is that if you're willing to accept a variety of cultures, ideologies and so on, you must not lay judgement at all on others, and specially you must not attempt to crusade around the world trying to impart your own believes on others. Accepting that would go a long way towards "everyone being friends enjoying the differences".

Re:Why no Roman industrial revolution? by leaflets2 on Saturday September 10, 2022 @06:15AM (#32789290)
You believe the people, the women, in Afghanistan want to be slaves under the Talibans? I guess your never met anyone from Afghanistan.

That's the same as believing the African Americans wanted to get captured by slave traders and shipped by boat to work as slaves in the US.

You have, or pretend to have, big holes in your understand of people and the world.

Putin was never chosen by the people, he doesn't represent them. He assassinates opposition politicians or put then in prison if they grow too strong, and fakes election results otherwise he would lose.

I wonder if you're a paid Chinese Communist Party 50 cent person, otherwise, the lack of knowledge you show would be baffling. If indeed you are, then, no hard feelings, I understand you might need a job and pay the rent and maybe you have family and kids what do I know. Probably I won't reply, have a nice day anyway.

Book tips: The Dictators Handbok. Those people don't ... Don't represent the people.

Re:Why no Roman industrial revolution? by DAVer98 on Friday August 26, 2022 @09:15PM (#32614577)
All the best chord progressions are known, all the best formulas for movie scripts are rehashed again and again, it does feel like we are now on borrowed time whenever I hear a bad song or see a bad movie and this is extending to video games now, when most things appear bad these days compared to what came before and they like they should not have been created it means we should not be around doing it. We're done. We did our bit. Its time for our civilization to wind down.
Re:Why no Roman industrial revolution? by tharkun__ on Friday August 26, 2022 @11:56PM (#32615486)
I bet there were people saying the same thing about the music hundreds of years ago. Or about theater. Shakespeare, who needs something else? Well, personally I will take a good movie from the past 25 years over Shakespeare any day. A lot of them borrow from Shakespeare or similar of course but I like the rehashes from 15 years ago better than the originals.
Re:Why no Roman industrial revolution? by withinboredom on Friday August 26, 2022 @07:27PM (#32613939)
We could also just have a lucky sun. It hasn’t flared on us in a hundred years or so. Maybe other systems aren’t so lucky and they can’t use electricity like we can. Hell, the next time it does flare up, we will probably go back to a preindustrial society for a decade or so.
Re:Why no Roman industrial revolution? by dereg on Saturday August 27, 2022 @03:13AM (#32616608)
This is such a simple and lazy way to think about the world.
Re:Why no Roman industrial revolution? by leaflets2 on Saturday August 27, 2022 @03:56AM (#32616823)
What don't you like about it?

How is it any lazy

I found especially the Fermi paradox interesting (throwawayacc2 thanks for mentioning)

Re:Why no Roman industrial revolution? by rini17 on Saturday August 27, 2022 @03:59AM (#32616842)
If they exist but are very rare that has some reason. Perhaps because it's fine tuned crystal structure which requires very high purity reagents. Or very specific unnatural angles like the recent experiments with multilayer graphene.
Re:Why no Roman industrial revolution? by Gravityloss on Sunday August 28, 2022 @07:37AM (#32627554)
Battery technology as well. Think how just the lithium battery has changed the world...
Re:Why no Roman industrial revolution? by 7952 on Saturday August 27, 2022 @05:23AM (#32617261)
It could be cheap underground drilling. That gives you affordable ground source heat pumps. It makes it cheaper to run underground cables to renewable energy. It makes it easier to build on piled foundations. And could even be a source of material for construction.
Re:Why no Roman industrial revolution? by D-Coder on Sunday August 28, 2022 @02:04PM (#32630485)
Sound recordings.

A hand-cranked wax cylinder with an acoustic cone, a needle, and a rod to move the needle along the cylinder.

Re:Why no Roman industrial revolution? by winter_blue on Friday August 26, 2022 @05:30PM (#32612978)
I would imagine most likely something to do with space travel.
Re:Why no Roman industrial revolution? by thrown_22 on Friday August 26, 2022 @06:33PM (#32613508)
Copyright and patents.
Re:Why no Roman industrial revolution? by sakex on Friday August 26, 2022 @05:00PM (#32612706)
Nuclear fusion, maybe?
Re:Why no Roman industrial revolution? by cellis on Friday August 26, 2022 @08:30PM (#32614358)
This or quantum computing, probably both. I'd imagine a quantum computer running RL could fit solutions for fusion without much fuss.
Re:Why no Roman industrial revolution? by Nasrudith on Friday August 26, 2022 @05:11PM (#32612808)
Battery technology seems like a good candidate given its long period of stagnation. Our current progression was informed by the hiatus like the microcontroller required lithium ion.
Re:Why no Roman industrial revolution? by eru on Saturday August 27, 2022 @01:02AM (#32615893)
What do you mean by long period of stagnation?

Which time period are you talking about? I couldn't find a grand unifying graph of eg cost-per-kWh of electricity storage since 1900 or so, but what I could find points to steady declines in price.

Both in single use batteries and in rechargeables.

What you might see as stagnation is that rechargeable batteries haven only rather recently become good enough for many exciting applications (like practical electric cars). But just because we've only recently crossed these thresholds, doesn't mean there was stagnation earlier.

See eg https://enerpoly.com/alkaline-cell-then-and-now/ for some important progress that you might have missed.

The humble lead-acid battery also has a fascinating history, that is full of steady improvements.

> As an example, lead battery life has increased by 30-35% in the last 20 years.

https://www.forbes.com/sites/rrapier/2019/10/27/the-lead-aci...

Re:Why no Roman industrial revolution? by dredmorbius on Friday August 26, 2022 @09:17PM (#32614586)
Italy lacks coal and Rome had already deforested the peninsula. Iron takes phenomenal amounts of fuel.

The smelting could have occurred elsewhere --- the coal fields of norther Spain, France, or possibly Germany (I believe the Ruhr region corresponds to Roman conquest regions), or of course, Brittania. But then you'd need to have a far-removed high-tech industry and long-haul shipping of finished goods back to Rome or for trade elsewhere.

Common elements of industrial revolutions seem to be:

- A weak nobility and religious sector, relative to merchants and artisans.

- Extensive commerce, preferably by water.

- A stable political scene. It's interesting that island states adjacent to large continental regions feature in the rise of England / UK and Japan. Arguably the US was an "island state" relative to Europe. Madagascar, Sri Lanka, and New Zealand would be exceptions, though these lacked a well-developed neighbouring region at the appropriate time, and NZ is a long haul from the corresponding continent. Indonesia too, I suppose.

- Indigenous resource, especially of industrial inputs: coal and iron. Japan is betrayed by its volcanic geography here. Lots of mountains, relatively few minerals. (Though neighbouring China and Korea had extensive resources, generating strong interest and tumultuous history.)

Another factor for Rome was that it didn't need steel to defeat any of its enemies. Low-quality iron and bronze sufficed, along with logistics and empirical organisation, for the most part. (Until of course it didn't.)

Japan figured out steel, but was so iron-poor that its construction and carpentry are almost wholly based on wood-on-wood joinery to minimise the need for nails or screws. (Not that the latter were standardised until the 19th and 20th centuries.)

Re:Why no Roman industrial revolution? by 29athrowaway on Friday August 26, 2022 @04:00PM (#32612068)
The industrial revolution was more about motorized equipment than about materials.

Once you have a steam engine you can spin cotton, you can have trains, steamboats and later, turbines connected to generators in power plants.

It's a big upgrade from windmills, horses and mules.

And you cannot have a steam engine without knowing about the gas laws, laws of motion, etc. So advances in math, physics and chemistry to extends that were unknown to the romans were necessary to get to a steam engine.

You also cannot have an steam engine without having pistons, crankshafts, etc. Some of them were known to the Islamic civilization. https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Book_of_Ingenious_Devices

So... no! Steampunk romans could not have been a thing.

Re:Why no Roman industrial revolution? by ethbr0 on Friday August 26, 2022 @04:23PM (#32612327)
The ability to efficiently create energy anywhere and the maximum level of power that can be output seem critical.

Creating energy, but only in specific locations, doesn't have the broader social impact.

And similarly, many applications require a minimum level of power (say, 2x horse) before they're fundamentally transformed.

The industrial revolution was, from my perspective, an ouroboros of the means to produce power increasing our means to produce those means, and out of novel raw materials.

Or, in other words... at some point the Romans had deforested their environs. https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Deforestation_during_the_Rom...

Re:Why no Roman industrial revolution? by tuatoru on Friday August 26, 2022 @05:21PM (#32612913)
No, the steam engine came after the industrial revolution was over.[1]

In 1840 the amount of steam power per worker in England was the same as in 1750. Total horsepower from steam only just matched water power in 1830.

And that was in the country using the most steam by far.

1. https://daviskedrosky.substack.com/p/a-study-in-steam

I recommend Dr. Kedrosky's blog in general, if you are interested in material progress.

Re:Why no Roman industrial revolution? by 29athrowaway on Friday August 26, 2022 @07:27PM (#32613937)
The Romans had hydraulic systems too.

That does not mean that innovations like the train and motors didn't transform society.

Re:Why no Roman industrial revolution? by jacobolus on Friday August 26, 2022 @04:57PM (#32612676)
Interesting aside about the McCormick reaper: apparently it was joint work between McCormick and Jo Anderson, his slave https://richmond.com/special-section/black-history/article_2...
Re:Why no Roman industrial revolution? by tecoholic on Friday August 26, 2022 @10:34PM (#32615053)
I would like to add the reference to Wootz steel, which Wikipedia article indicates played a big role in steel development in Europe in the 17-18th century

https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Wootz_steel

Re:Why no Roman industrial revolution? by baxtr on Friday August 26, 2022 @03:19PM (#32611607)
I enjoyed that comment very much. It reminded me of good old Civilization where you could take paths through inventions in order to get more and more advanced over time.
Re:Why no Roman industrial revolution? by Pxtl on Friday August 26, 2022 @02:46PM (#32611240)
Did Rome have the glassware technology for the kind of chemistry research that even renaissance-era alchemists were doing, much less Victorian scientists like Dalton?
Re:Why no Roman industrial revolution? by bennyg on Friday August 26, 2022 @03:28PM (#32611714)
Maybe - https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Roman_glass. I don't have enough chemistry context to say that the things they could produce would be helfpul/hurtful/neutral to any kind of chemical analysis.
Re:Why no Roman industrial revolution? by bsder on Friday August 26, 2022 @10:47PM (#32615142)
Surprisingly, yes.

The Romans were remarkably good at glassware. This was one of the things that caught me off-guard when visting museums dedicated to ancient Rome vs ancient Greece. You go from no glass at all to lots of glass. Of course, I would say "suddenly", but in reality that's something like 7 centuries.

In addition, there's no real limit to the development of glass technology. Silica and wood are abundant. Trial and error will get you a very long way. And pretty things generally sell for nice money so there is lots of incentive.

Re:Why no Roman industrial revolution? by pfdietz on Friday August 26, 2022 @02:54PM (#32611336)
Glassblowing was invented in the first century BC in Syria.
Re:Why no Roman industrial revolution? by kahnclusions on Friday August 26, 2022 @05:21PM (#32612910)
In general no, I doubt it. Even though there have been breaks and setbacks caused by the fall of empires and rise of religions, in general our technological and scientific progress has been a steady constant from ancient times until today.
Re:Why no Roman industrial revolution? by totemandtoken on Friday August 26, 2022 @05:44PM (#32613088)
This is the sort of comment I love to see on hackernews. Really interesting analysis
Re:Why no Roman industrial revolution? by Qahlel on Friday August 26, 2022 @11:37PM (#32615389)
This was the greatest comment I have ever read.