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Re:Why no Roman industrial revolution? by Jensson on Friday August 26, 2022 @10:36PM (#32615066)
> I'm going to make a rather blunt argument that the difference was the arrival of New World foods, allowing for much larger populations than was possible in China at the time.

Potatoes and rice are roughly equivalent in terms of how many people they can feed. Potatoes was revolutionary to Europe because they didn't have rice, but would be nothing special to China.

Re:Why no Roman industrial revolution? by bobthepanda on Saturday August 27, 2022 @12:08AM (#32615551)
Corn and potato are important, but not necessarily as their whole form.

They were, however, often processed into corn and potato starch, which is pretty common in Chinese cooking.

Re:Why no Roman industrial revolution? by 7952 on Saturday August 27, 2022 @05:21AM (#32617251)
There could be a difference in labour required though and that is they key. Potatos made workers available who were not needed for farming.
Re:Why no Roman industrial revolution? by _hypx on Saturday August 27, 2022 @01:45PM (#32621348)
Potatoes are a lot more nutritious than rice though. Plus being easier to grow and in far more places. You also have to include things like maize, sweet potato, squash, etc.