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Re:MIT abandons use of DEI statements by blueboo on Sunday May 05, 2024 @04:11PM (#40267817)
This is the premise:

There are outstanding systemic inequities at every level of American society. The threat these represent to our long term survival and prosperity are such that we are keen to at least acknowledge and mark our and our prospective collaborators’ efforts to improve the status quo.

Maybe you don’t accept that. Maybe it’s asking for a virtue signal in service of performative posturing. Maybe this requirement had adverse effects (evidently it has.)

But there is a through-line of coherent logic, and the total failure here may be cause for alarm.

Re:MIT abandons use of DEI statements by ryandrake on Sunday May 05, 2024 @04:45PM (#40268174)
Your statement (which I happen to agree with) supports DEI policies but not the specific practice of requiring a written DEI statement, which is the important distinction OP made.

I think you can be for DEI as a concept and as a corporate or school policy, but against the performative act of writing it out as some kind of weird "pledge of allegiance" in a job application.

Re:MIT abandons use of DEI statements by blueboo on Sunday May 05, 2024 @04:59PM (#40268315)
Well, the “acknowledge and mark” phrase gets at the statement—That if the org thought objective X was authentic existential goal, it behooves them to understand how an applicant understands and would configure into that plan. (I have no claim about its efficacy. The highly-structured nature of the statement is a head-scratcher. I’m here watching the fallout with everyone else.)

I hasten to restate that is my understanding of the premise, in the spirit of collectively untangling the causal chain here. This is incendiary stuff on HN!

Re:MIT abandons use of DEI statements by shkkmo on Sunday May 05, 2024 @05:18PM (#40268499)
> it behooves them to understand how an applicant understands and would configure into that plan.

I (and a lot of us I think) follow you up to this point, but then you lose us here.

How does a written statement, the expected content of which is clearly known, give any understanding of the individual's position? This type of approach to education seems to me that it actively harms the ability to sway people's opinions.

I have this issue with a lot of discussions of DEI, there are a lot of arguments that support the DEI goal and a dearth of arguments that support the methods being used to achieve that goal.

Re:MIT abandons use of DEI statements by dgfitz on Sunday May 05, 2024 @06:43PM (#40269285)
> How does a written statement, the expected content of which is clearly known, give any understanding of the individual's position?

ChatGPT, please write me a DEI statement for this job interview.

Re:MIT abandons use of DEI statements by eastbound on Sunday May 05, 2024 @04:23PM (#40267939)
This is an ideological statement which brings no fact, no new perspective, is not substantial and does not refute the opponent’s argument (which is that unfair DEI creates resentment that you later pay).

As per Dang’s guidelines above (specifically for this thread), this should not have been allowed on HN.

Now I wonder: Why is it here?

Re:MIT abandons use of DEI statements by dang on Sunday May 05, 2024 @05:41PM (#40268726)
> Now I wonder: Why is it here?

The internet gods bestowed two* of these on us today. The other one is Israel shuts down local Al Jazeera offices - https://news.ycombinator.com/item?id=40267639. I posted an answer there to someone who asked more or less the same question, just about the other topic: https://news.ycombinator.com/item?id=40267862. But the principles are the same. If you're willing to read it mutatis mutandis and maybe take a look at some of the other posts I linked to, you should find what you're looking for.

* (No, that's not a trend—just random fluctuation)

Re:MIT abandons use of DEI statements by naasking on Sunday May 05, 2024 @05:19PM (#40268509)
> The threat these represent to our long term survival and prosperity are such that we are keen to at least acknowledge and mark our and our prospective collaborators’ efforts to improve the status quo.

I'm very skeptical that there is any threat to our survival here, or that DEI is any kind of response capable of resolving it. DEI is about "justice", a set of ethical principles, not about some utilitarian calculation about social survival or prosperity.

Re:MIT abandons use of DEI statements by rayiner on Sunday May 05, 2024 @05:21PM (#40268533)
I understand you’re trying to strong man this. But I think we need to interrogate the premise here. How does “inequity” represent a “threat” to our “long term survival and prosperity?” What is the specific causal mechanism by which we expect that to happen?

It seems facially implausible to me, given that America became prosperous when these inequalities were much worse. Why do we accept this premise as a given?

Re:MIT abandons use of DEI statements by agalunar on Monday May 06, 2024 @12:10PM (#40276253)
> Research has generally linked economic inequality to political and social instability, including revolution, democratic breakdown and civil conflict.

https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Economic_inequality

Re:MIT abandons use of DEI statements by wiseowise on Sunday May 05, 2024 @05:34PM (#40268659)
> The threat these represent to our long term survival and prosperity are such that we are keen to at least acknowledge and mark our and our prospective collaborators’ efforts to improve the status quo

As someone who is pro DEI and participated in DEI related activities and brainstorms during hiring: I very much doubt that.

Re:MIT abandons use of DEI statements by pfdietz on Sunday May 05, 2024 @05:52PM (#40268824)
I'm getting the impression a lot of Americans are now not just comfortable with systemic inequality, but are gravitating toward a position that it's actually desirable. In this environment, DEI bafflegab just pushes them in that direction.
Re:MIT abandons use of DEI statements by slenocchio on Sunday May 05, 2024 @06:21PM (#40269081)
That's a mischaracterization. No one is _for_ inequality. The opposition you speak of is _for_ race/gender blind meritocracy. Anyone with a little knowledge of economics understands that groups of people cut across any dimension will always have different outcomes; Russian Americans earn more than French Americans, Japanese Americans earn more than Fillipino Americans, taller people earn more than shorter people, etc.

No one thinks inequality is desirable. The opposition you speak of think it's unavoidable. And bad public policy will have effects that make the situation worse for everyone.

Re:MIT abandons use of DEI statements by pfdietz on Sunday May 05, 2024 @06:32PM (#40269198)
> No one is _for_ inequality.

I suggest that's an extraordinarily naive statement.

Re:MIT abandons use of DEI statements by slenocchio on Sunday May 05, 2024 @08:39PM (#40269998)
Can you send me writing or video of any serious thinker advocating for this? The OP is a common straw-man characterization of the position I described.
Re:MIT abandons use of DEI statements by pfdietz on Sunday May 05, 2024 @08:43PM (#40270013)
> serious thinker

No True Scotsman detected.

Re:MIT abandons use of DEI statements by slenocchio on Sunday May 05, 2024 @08:58PM (#40270115)
I read the article you sent, it doesn't prove your point.
Re:MIT abandons use of DEI statements by pfdietz on Monday May 06, 2024 @09:36AM (#40274522)
It's interesting how "no one is for inequality" is taken as a statement that doesn't require proof (my original statement was about my impression, not a clear statement that was the case.)

I suggest that categorical statement that, universally, everyone is against inequality, needs some justification. Historically it's certainly not true AT ALL.

Re:MIT abandons use of DEI statements by slenocchio on Sunday May 05, 2024 @08:45PM (#40270031)
Ok how about any thinker.
Re:MIT abandons use of DEI statements by pfdietz on Sunday May 05, 2024 @08:47PM (#40270045)
Re:MIT abandons use of DEI statements by zeroonetwothree on Sunday May 05, 2024 @10:46PM (#40270684)
It seems like this just assumes the conclusion?

“ As an imprecise working definition (not for all times and places but for the United States today), “far right” is used here to mean political forces that (a) regard human inequality as natural, ”

Re:MIT abandons use of DEI statements by CoastalCoder on Sunday May 05, 2024 @07:38PM (#40269641)
I assumed it was hyperbole on the GP's part.
Re:MIT abandons use of DEI statements by throwaway22032 on Sunday May 05, 2024 @09:58PM (#40270439)
Hi - as a counterpoint, I think that inequality is desirable.

In a world with limited resources I think it makes sense to allocate more resources towards people who perform acts for society which require rare skill sets, talent, etc. That might mean more money, it might mean land, it might mean status, or anything else really.

The idea being that those rewards both serve as motivation and also help those people to focus on the good work that they are doing.

You can apply this to basically anything - I think that a more beautiful person, all else being equal, should recieve favourable treatment over an ugly one.

The main downside of such an approach seems to be that, to put it simply, losers get less than winners and to some people that seems unfair. But it's only unfair if the rewards allocated aren't proportional to merit.

I don't really consider this to be controversial to be honest - I think someone who is twice as good as me as a programmer, or contributes twice as much value to the business, or hell, is twice as good at football as me - should receive at least twice as much. That's unequal, but it's also sane and right.

Re:MIT abandons use of DEI statements by zeroonetwothree on Sunday May 05, 2024 @10:48PM (#40270696)
I think that you are arguing against equity not equality. Usually the latter means “equality of opportunity”. At least that’s typically the difference in most debates.
Re:MIT abandons use of DEI statements by throwaway22032 on Sunday May 05, 2024 @11:07PM (#40270795)
I don't consider there to be a difference.

A society in which the children of successful people are prioritised over the children of unsuccessful people is almost certain to lead to better outcomes for exactly the same reasons.

I came from an underprivileged background myself, if I were investing money with an aim to generating a return, I'd far sooner give it to a banker's son than someone from the estate I grew up on. I was the exception, not the rule, and the older I get the more I figure I must just be some sort of genetic freak, since the overwhelming opinion seems to be that our fate is predestined, nowadays.

Re:MIT abandons use of DEI statements by zero-sharp on Monday May 06, 2024 @12:36AM (#40271170)
Family wealth is probably an indicator for future success. I don't know the numbers, but I would expect family wealth to correlate positively with the earnings of the children. So if you want a return on investment, it makes sense to bet on the wealthy.

But I thought we were talking merit and opportunity? No, being a banker's son doesn't predestine you to being more skillful. You should already have enough counterexamples to demonstrate that fact.

Your comment is borderline bewildering. It's like corruption and nepotism don't exist.

Re:MIT abandons use of DEI statements by dang on Monday May 06, 2024 @02:26AM (#40271746)
We detached this subthread from https://news.ycombinator.com/item?id=40267817.
Re:MIT abandons use of DEI statements by jack_h on Sunday May 05, 2024 @07:25PM (#40269550)
> There are outstanding systemic inequities at every level of American society.

I think this needs to be backed up with evidence rather than merely asserted. I've been reading through a number of books by Thomas Sowell lately and he presents enough statistical evidence to explain disparities without any hint of racism, sexism, etc. Regardless of if you agree with him or not, the mere fact that alternate theories exist that explain why society looks as it does today should be enough to question the foundational problem that DEI claims to address.

Take as an example the gender pay gap which is presented as women earning 77 cents for every dollar a man makes. While statistically true in aggregate, DEI tends to treat this axiomatically as a sign of sexism. If you dig into the statistics the vast majority of this difference is due to the fact that many women voluntarily take time off of their career to raise children.

Re:MIT abandons use of DEI statements by tomnipotent on Sunday May 05, 2024 @08:28PM (#40269933)
> many women voluntarily take time off of their career to raise children

Expect there is evidence to suggest that women that earn a higher income are less likely to leave the workforce, which is further influenced by access to affordable childcare and dual incomes.

The point is that when you control for these factors, a woman with the same title and responsibilities as a man will earn less for the same work.

Re:MIT abandons use of DEI statements by whatthesmack on Sunday May 05, 2024 @09:09PM (#40270180)
> The point is that when you control for these factors, a woman with the same title and responsibilities as a man will earn less for the same work.

That can't possibly be true, because in a market economy, the more-expensive workers (men) would be laid off and replaced by less-expensive, equally-capable "same title and responsibilities" workers (women). This doesn't seem to be the case on a grand scale, which means it's more deep/complex than the "men get paid more than women" headline we're all used to seeing.

Re:MIT abandons use of DEI statements by tomnipotent on Monday May 06, 2024 @01:40AM (#40271463)
Are you arguing that society operates from a position of optimal market theory, and that cultural norms, prejudices, and biases play no role in salary or pay rates for anyone It's not particularly hard to find examples of disparity or exploitation.
Re:MIT abandons use of DEI statements by Manuel_D on Monday May 06, 2024 @11:58AM (#40276107)
Disparity and exploitation are not the same thing as ignoring an obvious way to reduce labor costs. Why would companies be smart enough to outsource labor overseas, but somehow lack the know-how to simply hire women and save 23% of labor costs? Because the "women make 77 cents on the dollar" meme is just looking at raw incomes, and not adjusting for type of job and experience.
Re:MIT abandons use of DEI statements by tomnipotent on Monday May 06, 2024 @06:40PM (#40280328)
> "women make 77 cents on the dollar" meme

So you've done more search than everyone else putting out data? Maybe you can share all your hard-earned discoveries on the subject, since so you're so confidently well-informed.

Men account for 13% of nurses, but average $90k vs $76k for women.

https://blog.carlow.edu/2022/12/29/how-the-gender-pay-gap-im...

Female lawyers under 35 make 90% of their male counterparts, but the gap increases to 76% by middle age.

https://www.census.gov/library/stories/2018/05/women-lawyers...

The trend continues for doctors, police, and even teachers.

> lack the know-how to simply hire women and save 23% of labor costs

If you think "know-how" is the problem, you're ill equipped for this conversation.

Re:MIT abandons use of DEI statements by Manuel_D on Monday May 06, 2024 @07:21PM (#40280605)
Then why don't they just hire women to do the exact same jobs as men and save a ton of money? You're still not offering a rationale for why companies aren't making use of an easy way to reduce labor costs. Which is more likely: that companies hate women so much that they're willing to ignore an opportunity to make a massive leap in profitability? Or perhaps you need to read your studies more closely and it's not the case that men and women are paid differently for the same work?

Your study on nurses offers an explanation in the article:

> Male nurses also reported working more hours per week, at an average 39 hours plus five hours of overtime, while female nurses reported working an average of 37 hours plus four hours of overtime.

I agree that if you just count the W-2s and ignore hours worked, subfields, travel, etc. then men make more than women. My whole point is that this kind of comparison is naive.

Likewise your study on lawyers grouped a hugely varied profession all into the same category. As an analogue, take doctors. Yes male and female doctor have different average incomes even for the same level of experience. But that doesn't capture the fact that over 70% of anesthesiologists are male while in pediatrics it's the opposite. This one will have an income disparity even when men and women are equally paid for the same work. It's a similarly naive analysis to lump together all lawyers into one category.

Re:MIT abandons use of DEI statements by tomnipotent on Monday May 06, 2024 @07:55PM (#40280822)
> You're still not offering a rationale

It's a fantasy world to believe that people operate purely on rational and logical long-term thinking. What's your rationale for slavery? Why couldn't women vote until recently? What's your rationale for why American women couldn't go to bars unattended as late as the 1970s? There's literally no shortage of examples showing the mistreatment of women, yet it's hard to believe that pay discrepancy remains till this day?

The entire premise if flawed if your operating under the assumption that people think in market and game theory. Prejudices and biases easily overcome rational thinking.

> Your study on nurses offers an explanation in the article:

The differences in hours doesn't account for the difference in pay.

> over 70% of anesthesiologists are male while in pediatrics it's the opposite

Show me a single study that reinforces the data that backs up your position that satisfies the level of granularity you're grasping at. Until then, the research and data that's in supports only one of our positions.

Re:MIT abandons use of DEI statements by Manuel_D on Monday May 06, 2024 @08:16PM (#40280960)
There's a vast difference between suboptimal decision making and ignoring a massive cost saving. The line that "went make X% as much as men" is widely spread, it's inconceivable that executives haven't heard this line. And the profi gains from a 10-20% reduction in labor costs would be staggering. No, prejudice doesn't cut it as a rationale.

Slavery existed because preindustrial societies were heavily labor intensive and the returns on more skilled labor was marginal. The industrial revolution changed this, which is why abolition movements largely coincided with industrialization.

Restrictions of women's liberties stem from thousands of years of family dynamics where child mortality rates meant that women had to spend most of their fertile years bearing and caring for children. The replacement rate in preindustrial societies was something like 5-6 births per woman due to such high infant mortality rates.

> The differences in hours doesn't account for the difference in pay

It actually does, men work 2 more normal hours and 1 more overtime hour on average. Assuming overtime is paid at 2x normal wages this is about a 10% disparity in paid hours. And again, there's more than just hours worked there's travel nursing, different metro areas, and more.

> Show me a single study that reinforces the data that backs up your position that satisfies the level of granularity you're grasping at.

You're asking me to prove a negative. I don't doubt you can find individual instances of discrimination against women (and against men), my point is that the large disparities between men's and women's average wages overwhelmingly stem from differences in men and women's behavior rather than discrimination.

Re:MIT abandons use of DEI statements by tomnipotent on Monday May 06, 2024 @08:38PM (#40281076)
> The line that "went make X% as much as men" is widely spread

It's not "widely spread", it's widely researched. Show me a study that explains the pay gap as owing to mostly to behavior.

You've provided post-hoc academic rationale, rather than something the average person would have been operating under. People simply do not make decisions the way you seem to be under the impression of. I'm sure the average slave owner used your explanation rather than believing that subset of the population was sub-human chattel.

An example of a behavioral difference is salary negotiation, where assertive women are viewed negatively while a man chest-thumping is viewed positively. Tell that woman who took a lower salary because of cultural stigmas and traditions your rationale and see how far that goes. I've been in the room when a man waved off a woman because of such behavior.

> You're asking me to prove a negative.

I'm asking you to back up your claim with evidence, which you have thusly been unable to do. What you have done is nitpick specific details like that's a gotcha, rather than owing to statistics and population sampling.

Re:MIT abandons use of DEI statements by Manuel_D on Monday May 06, 2024 @09:08PM (#40281229)
Noticing a pay disparity and concluding that it's due to discrimination is just as much of a post-hoc analysis.

And yes, when you account for experience, field, location, etc. the pay disparity effectively disappears (less than 1%)

https://www.economist.com/graphic-detail/2017/08/01/are-wome...

Re:MIT abandons use of DEI statements by zeroonetwothree on Sunday May 05, 2024 @10:43PM (#40270675)
Seems like this isn’t always the case, so your statement shouldn’t be so absolute: https://www.pewresearch.org/short-reads/2022/03/28/young-wom...
Re:MIT abandons use of DEI statements by tomnipotent on Monday May 06, 2024 @01:21AM (#40271368)
The irony of posting an article that proves my point, you really got me there.