I read the article you sent, it doesn't prove your point.

It's interesting how "no one is for inequality" is taken as a statement that doesn't require proof (my original statement was about my impression, not a clear statement that was the case.)

I suggest that categorical statement that, universally, everyone is against inequality, needs some justification. Historically it's certainly not true AT ALL.

Ok how about any thinker.

It seems like this just assumes the conclusion?

“ As an imprecise working definition (not for all times and places but for the United States today), “far right” is used here to mean political forces that (a) regard human inequality as natural, ”