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Re:When did Americans lose their British accents? by david_draco on Monday February 10, 2020 @08:56AM (#22289088)
I read somewhere that the American accent is closer to what British was like in the 1700-1800s. Later the Queen's family, which came from a corner of England, established its accent as the norm. So the American pronounciation is original, and the British one changed in the meantime. Not sure if this is true.
Re:When did Americans lose their British accents? by toyg on Monday February 10, 2020 @10:04AM (#22289660)
> the Queen’s family, which came from a corner of England

First time I see Germany classified as “a corner of England”, lol.

(To be fair, before the current crop, the English aristocracy spoke mainly French, and I guess France could be classed as “a corner of England” by people still a bit hung-up on the loss of Brittany...)

RP English is heavily influenced by French and Germanic tones. Local dialects are very different. I still find it hard to compare British languages with what developed in North America, where the influence of non-English-speakers was clearly massive. Isn’t it more interesting to look at Australia and South Africa, where direct links with English natives are way more recent, and still the language departed markedly...?

Re:When did Americans lose their British accents? by jcranmer on Monday February 10, 2020 @11:00AM (#22290195)
> (To be fair, before the current crop, the English aristocracy spoke mainly French, and I guess France could be classed as “a corner of England” by people still a bit hung-up on the loss of Brittany...)

Normandy, not Brittany. Brittany was never part of the English crown, and it was independent from the French crown for a long time as well (de jure not until the French Revolution, although it was de facto part of France for about 250 years prior).

Re:When did Americans lose their British accents? by toyg on Monday February 10, 2020 @11:28AM (#22290549)
> Normandy, not Brittany.

Fair point. In my head the two tend to merge into an unicuum, but that's not the case.

Re:When did Americans lose their British accents? by scoot on Monday February 10, 2020 @10:13AM (#22289741)
The South African accent has a much stronger Dutch influence (from Afrikaans), despite the language being English.
Re:When did Americans lose their British accents? by Mediterraneo10 on Monday February 10, 2020 @10:41AM (#22290017)
Not quite that simple. Yes, SA English follows after certain features of Afrikaans, but some of those Afrikaans features were local innovations, not brought from the Netherlands (centralization of /i/ is one example).
Re:When did Americans lose their British accents? by scoot on Monday February 10, 2020 @11:41AM (#22290679)
Hence "influence".
Re:When did Americans lose their British accents? by Mediterraneo10 on Monday February 10, 2020 @01:00PM (#22291490)
My point is that that influence is not necessarily Dutch if the features in question happened in Afrikaans only after its arrival on the Cape.
Re:When did Americans lose their British accents? by flipchart on Friday February 14, 2020 @05:36AM (#22325468)
That's only one of the English accents in SA. There are many others including an RP-like accent (which I and my friends use), the Cape Coloured accent, and the accent which most of the country's people use (as seen initially in this video https://youtu.be/KfIvbVLuCh8?t=3)
Re:When did Americans lose their British accents? by jackfoxy on Monday February 10, 2020 @11:37AM (#22290644)
I thought primary Norman French speaking died out with the Plantagenets. I'm sure almost all the royals after the first few Plantagentes were at least bilingual in English/French. George I could not speak English IIRC. His first language was German. Do you have a reference for the Tudors and later houses speaking primarily French? James I (of England, VI of Scotland), yep, I'll believe that without reference.
Re:When did Americans lose their British accents? by pfranz on Tuesday February 11, 2020 @01:30AM (#22296526)
A modern example of English aristocracy speaking French is that English uses Anglo-Saxon words for animals, but French words for prepared food--which was very expensive. cow/beef pig/pork sheep/mutton

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_English_words_with_dua...

Re:When did Americans lose their British accents? by brazzledazzle on Monday February 10, 2020 @10:12AM (#22289725)
Isn’t South Africa a former Dutch colony?
Re:When did Americans lose their British accents? by pinkfoot on Monday February 10, 2020 @10:13AM (#22289740)
Yip, and a former British colony.

Hence… 'A' is for aardvaark.

Re:When did Americans lose their British accents? by fredgrott on Monday February 10, 2020 @11:29AM (#22290561)
also by Danish..where do you think Anglo came from? yes, the term is Roman for what they called brits but the actual group that was not Saxon(Saxon ie German Saxony) came from the middle of Denmark..
Re:When did Americans lose their British accents? by phonypc on Monday February 10, 2020 @01:12PM (#22291624)
Anglia (which is currently in Germany) wasn't a Danish speaking region until well after the Angles settled in Britain. Which was well after the Roman period. They spoke Old English.
Re:When did Americans lose their British accents? by dragonwriter on Monday February 10, 2020 @09:51AM (#22289544)
> Not sure if this is true.

It's true to the extent that, as the article notes, the dominant British accent used to be rhotic (probounced-r) like General American, but became non-rhotic as a result of upper class fashion (which was copied in some parts of the US, producing the modern Boston accent, among others.)

But both sets of accents have evolved considerably otherwise, so it's not really true broadly, as best I understand.

Re:When did Americans lose their British accents? by amyjess on Monday February 10, 2020 @10:53AM (#22290122)
IIRC, the American accent is also specifically derived from the West Country accent, which to this day has some features that are more associated with AmE such as rhoticity and the father-bother merger.

This was because Bristol in particular was a major sea hub in colonial-era England, much moreso than London. As an interesting side note, Americans know the West Country accent as the "pirate accent" thanks to the 1950 adaptation of Treasure Island, where Robert Newton played Long John Silver and managed to convince the director to let him use his native Dorset accent because he thought it would be more historically accurate than the RP accent the director originally wanted him to do, and his portrayal was so iconic that pretty much every pirate story since has used some variation on Newton's accent.

Re:When did Americans lose their British accents? by beerandt on Monday February 10, 2020 @09:34AM (#22289405)
The Mother Tongue by Bill Bryson covers this pretty well. Along with covering many other quirks of the English language.

https://www.goodreads.com/book/show/29.The_Mother_Tongue

Re:When did Americans lose their British accents? by Mediterraneo10 on Monday February 10, 2020 @10:43AM (#22290041)
Bill Bryson has no actual training in linguistics and The Mother Tongue features at least one factual error on every single page. (Some Goodreads reviews list these.) I would never recommend that book to any curious reader, it is as bad as pop-sci could possibly get.
Re:When did Americans lose their British accents? by beerandt on Monday February 10, 2020 @11:36AM (#22290638)
Most of the complaints I've seen have to do with what he gets wrong about other languages, and often in the way that locals are offended when you misuse a localism. Or in the way a physicist complains about a grade schooler being wrong because their answer used the Bohr model.

As an introductory book to a eccentric topic though, it works.

It's biggest asset, imo, is that Bryson isn't a linguist, and manages to make some obtuse concepts relatable, without getting bogged down in technicalities. Similar to what Michael Crichton could do with cutting edge sciences. (Granted, he kept mostly to fiction.)

Whereas the most basic begginer's article written by a linguist is still indecipherable to me. And linguists seem to be ok, or even happy, about that.

Linguists writing about a linguistic Lockheed A-12 would be aghast that anyone could ever mistake it for an SR-71, let alone be willing to explain the differences to the casual observer, or even make the mental effort to see how someone might mistake the two.

So as an engineer that hates the casual misuse of technical terms, I get you. But like the model of the atom, sometimes teaching the simplified but wrong model has its benefits for a certain crowd, until they're ready to go deeper.

Re:When did Americans lose their British accents? by Mediterraneo10 on Monday February 10, 2020 @12:42PM (#22291344)
> Most of the complaints I've seen have to do with what he gets wrong about other languages

Bryson gets many, many details about the history of English wrong as well.

> As an introductory book to a eccentric topic though, it works. It's biggest asset, imo, is that Bryson isn't a linguist.

No, Bryson is a hack writer and does more harm than good. You make it sound as if the only alternative to Bryson is eggheaded scholarly publications. In fact, there is a wide selection of popular-science treatments of the history of English and other languages that are both reliable and friendly and accessible for ordinary readers (for example, Melvyn Bragg’s The Adventure of English does right what Bryson set out to do).

It is like with archaeology: if an ordinary person wants to learn about the Pyramids, there is no need for someone to recommend Graham Hancock to them as if otherwise they would have to read obtuse archeological-dig reports and disputes among scholars.

Re:When did Americans lose their British accents? by planetsmashr on Monday February 10, 2020 @10:47AM (#22290074)
This is a great book. I came away with a greater appreciation for the English language in all its chaos and complexity.
Re:When did Americans lose their British accents? by oblio on Monday February 10, 2020 @09:12AM (#22289216)
There is be a certain degree of irony to English going through the Great Vowel Shift† (https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Great_Vowel_Shift) and then having a German dynasty which manages to distort the language again††.

† Which made English less-Germanic sounding, at least to my ears.

†† In my humble opinion modern British English sounds marginally more Germanic than American English.

Re:When did Americans lose their British accents? by ajmurmann on Monday February 10, 2020 @11:24AM (#22290491)
The great vowel shift needs to be taught much more. Native English speakers commonly default to not taking the great vowel shift into account when encountering a new language. They'd be so much closer to the correct pronunciation by just pronouncing it like it was a word from any language other than English they might already know a little.

This should be one of the first things that gets hammered home when learning the first foreign language.

Re:When did Americans lose their British accents? by atomi on Monday February 10, 2020 @01:07PM (#22291564)
An interesting aside, the Celts descended from Iberian fishermen.

https://www.independent.co.uk/news/uk/this-britain/celts-des...

Re:When did Americans lose their British accents? by seppin on Monday February 10, 2020 @10:40AM (#22290007)
It's not close at all, but it's closer but it's changed less.

Same with Canadian French.

Re:When did Americans lose their British accents? by awb on Monday February 10, 2020 @11:36AM (#22290630)
> I read somewhere that the American accent is closer to what British was like in the 1700-1800s.

Wouldn't you then expect a small isolated town in England to still have an "American" accent?

Re:When did Americans lose their British accents? by umanwizard on Monday February 10, 2020 @12:00PM (#22290888)
No, because that town's accent will have been changing since 1700, too.

But you definitely find, for example, places in England where "r"s at the ends of words or before consonants are pronounced, like in America but unlike in RP.

Re:When did Americans lose their British accents? by danans on Monday February 10, 2020 @12:58PM (#22291474)
> places in England where "r"s at the ends of words or before consonants are pronounced, like in America but unlike in RP

Specifically in the west country of England. This accent was borrowed by Hollywood to create what we know today as the "pirate" accent.

Re:When did Americans lose their British accents? by agumonkey on Monday February 10, 2020 @10:56AM (#22290152)
Interesting, for some reason I found England accents to have a strong historical feel. Also not to far away from germany (saxon tribes ?)
Re:When did Americans lose their British accents? by danans on Monday February 10, 2020 @01:02PM (#22291503)
> Interesting, for some reason I found England accents to have a strong historical feel

This is mass broadcast media playing to Americans' biases around the eliteness of English accents. This effect is at least as old as cross Atlantic broadcast media, heard until a few decades ago in the artificial Mid-Atlantic accents of the east coast elites.

On the other hand, to many in the UK, when watching a show like Game of Thrones, the Northmen sound like modern blokes from Yorkshire, not some kind of medieval people.

Re:When did Americans lose their British accents? by pdonis on Monday February 10, 2020 @11:12AM (#22290354)
> So the American pronounciation is original, and the British one changed in the meantime.

The article says basically the same thing (in its discussion of rhotic vs. non-rhotic accents). So the article's title is misleading: it should really be "When Did the British Gain Their British Accents?"

Re:When did Americans lose their British accents? by projectramo on Monday February 10, 2020 @11:16AM (#22290394)
Perhaps, but don't take the claim too far. From the article:

"Various claims about the accents of the Appalachian Mountains, the Outer Banks, the Tidewater region and Virginia's Tangier Island sounding like an uncorrupted Elizabethan-era English accent have been busted as myths by linguists. "

Re:When did Americans lose their British accents? by telesilla on Monday February 10, 2020 @09:04AM (#22289159)
Yes, this is basically considered fact. American is old-English. The same with Québécois and French.
Re:When did Americans lose their British accents? by foldr on Monday February 10, 2020 @09:43AM (#22289485)
This is plainly not the case. The grain of truth here is that certain linguistic features common to many dialects of 16th century British English have been preserved in most dialects of American English, whereas most dialects of British English have lost these features. (E.g., most American English dialects are rhotic.) But there is ample evidence that many aspects of American English have changed in the past few hundred years. Americans are clearly not speaking some kind of fossilized dialect from the 15th century.

By the way, the term "Old English" strictly speaking refers to this: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Old_English. No-one is claiming that Americans speak this language.

Re:When did Americans lose their British accents? by mumblemumble on Monday February 10, 2020 @10:20AM (#22289827)
That's a common stereotype of Québécois French, but I think it's more accurate to say that, just like for pretty much all widely spoken languages, there was a lot more regional variation in the French-speaking world a few hundred years ago, but it's been consolidating over time, and different places happened to consolidate differently.

IOW, Parisian French also retains some primitive features that have largely disappeared from one Canadian region or another. But we don't talk about those as much. I'm guessing because doing so wouldn't jive well with certain stereotypes about Québec being a backwards hinterland.

Re:When did Americans lose their British accents? by paleotrope on Monday February 10, 2020 @09:46AM (#22289508)
Yeah, in a way you could consider modern British English to be largely an affectation to denote class distinctions.
Re:When did Americans lose their British accents? by foldr on Monday February 10, 2020 @09:47AM (#22289513)
Because class distinctions didn't exist in 15th century Britain?!

This is simply nonsense.

Re:When did Americans lose their British accents? by dragonwriter on Monday February 10, 2020 @09:53AM (#22289564)
No, just the particular fads, e.g., the one that drove the change to the non-rhoticity of RP, didn't exist in 15th century Britain.

That the current accent is driven by a particular fad aimed at highlighting upper class status doesn't imply that class distinctions are novel, just the particular effort to demarcate them (which wasn't durable, obviously, as RP isn't exclusive to the upper classes.)

Re:When did Americans lose their British accents? by foldr on Monday February 10, 2020 @10:00AM (#22289620)
Sure, accents are partly markers of social status, but it's quite wrong to ascribe the diversity of accents in Britain to this. There was never a period where everyone in Britain spoke with the same accent.
Re:When did Americans lose their British accents? by dragonwriter on Monday February 10, 2020 @10:05AM (#22289667)
> but it's quite wrong to ascribe the diversity of accents in Britain to this.

No one, AFAICT, did that. The reference to “modern British English” is not, as I read it, a reference to “the current diversity of British accents”, but rather “the current dominant British accent”.

Re:When did Americans lose their British accents? by foldr on Monday February 10, 2020 @10:06AM (#22289677)
The current dominant British accent, if there is such a thing, isn't a marker of social status. If you're referring to RP, then hardly anyone even speaks RP nowadays (even the Queen only makes a half-assed effort...)
Re:When did Americans lose their British accents? by arethuza on Monday February 10, 2020 @10:32AM (#22289940)
I would say accents in the UK are a combination of social status and location.
Re:When did Americans lose their British accents? by foldr on Monday February 10, 2020 @10:57AM (#22290163)
They're a combination of that pretty much everywhere, but it's not clear to me what the "dominant" British accent is supposed to be. If there is such a thing, it's probably some kind of fairly unremarkable Estuary accent that doesn't have any strong connotations of a particular social status.
Re:When did Americans lose their British accents? by arethuza on Monday February 10, 2020 @11:05AM (#22290260)
"They're a combination of that pretty much everywhere"

Fair point - I would also agree that the idea of a "dominant" British accent seems a bit odd - certainly not in terms of what people actually sound like (rather than the broadcast media).

Re:When did Americans lose their British accents? by thrower123 on Monday February 10, 2020 @09:56AM (#22289588)
In 15th century England, the class distinction would be between speaking French or speaking English, not between different dialects of English.
Re:When did Americans lose their British accents? by foldr on Monday February 10, 2020 @10:00AM (#22289624)
If you are talking about speaking French as a first language, this is false, except possibly in relation to the upper reaches of the aristocracy. If you are talking about speaking French as a second language, then this continued to be a marker of class for a long time afterwards.

In a highly class-conscious society where the vast majority of people spoke English as their first language, it seems fairly unlikely that accent would have had no connotation of social status.

It thus seems hard to believe that the development of the modern diversity of English dialects would have been spurred by some sudden need to mark class distinctions.

Re:When did Americans lose their British accents? by jaratec on Monday February 10, 2020 @09:26AM (#22289334)
I am not sure about these "facts". Why would quebec accent stay the same for centuries? Languages are unstable, especially their pronunciation. Consider also the extraordinary diversity of accents in uk. Did only one cross the Atlantic?
Re:When did Americans lose their British accents? by thefringthing on Monday February 10, 2020 @09:33AM (#22289397)
It's possible for both dialects to evolve, but at different rates. Present-day Quebecois French is not identical to 17th century French, but it's closer to it than present-day Parisian French is.
Re:When did Americans lose their British accents? by jeromegv on Monday February 10, 2020 @11:56AM (#22290851)
You can't just make that kind of statement as a fact without providing any kind of source. Read any text from 17th century, languages have evolved quite a bit on both sides of the atlantic. One big reason why Parisian french would be quite different is that colonization to New France did not come from Paris.
Re:When did Americans lose their British accents? by umanwizard on Monday February 10, 2020 @12:02PM (#22290906)
People say this, but I've always thought it was just another piece of pop badlinguistics nonsense that you hear about practically every language. Do you have a reliable source?
Re:When did Americans lose their British accents? by cultus on Monday February 10, 2020 @09:35AM (#22289413)
Smaller populations very reliably have slower-evolving language. Icelandic is similar to old Norse and old English. Just like you'll hear a lot of Iowan accents in Atlanta but not if you drive 80 miles outside of town.

Believe it or not, there is an entire field called linguistics that studies human language and how it evolves.

Re:When did Americans lose their British accents? by Mediterraneo10 on Monday February 10, 2020 @10:50AM (#22290099)
Although Icelandic maintains an orthography close to Old Norse, the value of the letters is very different today indeed. The vowel system, for example, has been greatly restructured. Preaspiration became a quality of the consonants.

In terms of lexicon, much of the archaic flavour is actually the result of 19th-century language reformers trying to restore old words. In the meantime, Icelandic had borrowed heavily from Danish.

Indeed, there is the field of linguistics, and scholarly treatments of Icelandic (as opposed to pop-sci presentations of the language as a time capsule like yours) point out that Icelandic has undergone a great deal of innovation like any other North Germanic language.

Re:When did Americans lose their British accents? by Tainnor on Monday February 10, 2020 @09:43AM (#22289486)
It's true that languages generally change, but they don't necessarily change equally fast everywhere. See also this answer: https://linguistics.stackexchange.com/questions/4033/do-lang...