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Re:Has philosophy ever clarified mathematics? by bykovich on Tuesday February 28, 2017 @04:01PM (#13757778)
> Secondly, remember that broadly the point of philosophy is to make things not philosophy. In extremely simplistic historical terms, once natural philosophy becomes rigorous it becomes science, once philosophy of language became rigorous it became linguistics, and today we're seeing philosophy of mind turn to neuroscience.

This is absolutely not correct, and elucidates little but the prejudices of the answerer. Philosophy of language has /not/ become linguistics, philosophy of mind has /not/ become neuroscience, and only a subset of natural philosophy has become natural science.

The philosophical questions discussed by Socrates have elided the grasp of both dogmatic rigor and empiricism for twenty-four hundred years, and there seems to be absolutely no reason to expect this to change.

The answerer has either no actual grasp of the history or content of philosophy, or has simply decided, apparently by fiat, to discard all but the most narrow positivism-flavored slice as nonsense.

Re:Has philosophy ever clarified mathematics? by dmreedy on Tuesday February 28, 2017 @04:28PM (#13758047)
I'm not sure I follow what you're railing against here. You're absolutely correct that none of the disciplines you've listed have been completely solved yet, and that they likely won't be any time soon. But I'm not sure it's fair to say they are not all actively fed by and deeply integrated with the work done in their precursor philsophical fields. This is particularly noticeable in more abstract fields like mathematics and computation where often times, empiricism can't be a driving factor because there's no empirical ground to stand on. If your point is, "There's still Philosophy left in these spaces", that seems to me to be like arguing that men cannot have evolved from apes, because there's still apes around.
Re:Has philosophy ever clarified mathematics? by bykovich on Tuesday February 28, 2017 @04:37PM (#13758182)
No, my point is that none of these disciplines have been remotely subsumed by their "rigorous" counterparts, because their subject matter is fundamentally different. All of these "rigorous" fields are, of course, fed by philosophy -- but they are not in a position to turn around and solve philosophy.

For example, linguistics -- understood as the science of language -- will never be able to, say, tell us what the connection is between the word and the world. How would it? And for all the promise of neuroscience, it is not one inch closer to telling us why there is a seeming difference between what physically occurs in a brain during an experience and what that experience is /like/.

There is certainly overlap between rigorous methodologies and philosophy. But the goal of philosophy is not to rigorize its way out of existence.

Re:Has philosophy ever clarified mathematics? by naasking on Tuesday February 28, 2017 @09:19PM (#13760380)
> No, my point is that none of these disciplines have been remotely subsumed by their "rigorous" counterparts, because their subject matter is fundamentally different. All of these "rigorous" fields are, of course, fed by philosophy -- but they are not in a position to turn around and solve philosophy.

No they can't answer many of the questions some philosophers have asked, but they can and have shown that many of those questions were poorly defined. For instance, biology and biochemistry have completely supplanted the philosophical debate surrounding vitalism.

Slowly but surely, I also predict neuroscience will erode many of the foundations surrounding dualism. Which isn't to say that those fields will be free of philosophical questions at some point, because that's just not how knowledge works, I'm merely saying that many of our current philosophical questions will either be answered or will be shown to be poor questions.

Re:Has philosophy ever clarified mathematics? by dmreedy on Tuesday February 28, 2017 @11:28PM (#13761114)
I don't mean to understate or disrespect the scale of the task to which philosophers traditionally apply themselves; you're preaching to the choir there. But I do want to be careful not to inject too much mysticism into the picture.

There is something persistently mystical to qualia, to sensitivity, to experience, the nature of existence, whatever else you want to lump under the category of 'scientifically unsolvable'. Whether you want to address it via Hegelian Contexts or Quinian Nominalism or Protestant Ecstasy; for as many understandings of these phenomena and their motivating metaphysics, there are an equal number of implicit definitions of the word 'rigor'. Even the romantics were still in the business of establishing their own systems within which to do work, in the form of proofs using the rules of those systems. They may not look like scientific systems, but they are still systems to do the work of solving problems, and thus run parallel to scientific systems (as a sibling poster has described).

And so I prefer a much more charitable interpretation of the SO response. I agree with you that the goal of philosophy is not to rigorize its way out of existence - it probably can't, and probably for a superset of the reasons why meta-descriptive paradoxes arise. Nor is it to become a science in the technical sense (i.e., an empirical and deductive process in accordance with the scientific method). But do I think the goal of most philosphers is to build compelling systems within which their apostles may do work, or practice rigor.

Re:Has philosophy ever clarified mathematics? by platz on Wednesday March 01, 2017 @12:41AM (#13761484)
> think the goal of most philosphers is to build compelling systems within which their apostles may do work, or practice rigor.

That may or may not be what the modern philosopher's goal is, but I don't think it's fair to say, unequivocally, this was always philosophy's goal all along—or at the very least, such a claim is contested/disputed.

For example, Rorty [1] made the point that philosophy, as an epistemological enterprise that grounds the foundations of other sciences & give them credibility, really found it's start in the early modern philosophers, with their attempt to carve out a place for science inside dominant the religious world.

(At this point philosophy was continuous with the sciences.)

And then continuing w/ Descartes, Locke & Kant, to this version of philosophy which is no longer continuous with science, but rather playing this special epistemological role.

[1] https://plato.stanford.edu/entries/rorty/#2

Re:Has philosophy ever clarified mathematics? by voidhorse on Tuesday February 28, 2017 @09:01PM (#13760285)
Couldn't agree with you more.

A lot of people jump into the naive belief that science replaces philosophy because philosophy is often the starting point of many of the sciences--as is typical, we see a connection and begin a reductive process that dumbs it all down to a straightforward relation like causality or linear progress, ignoring the actual complexities of the relationship. Nietzsche would scold us!

We tend to forget, of course, that science is really just another, even if it happens to be the most sensible thus far, form of dogma, and philosophy is one of the only, if not the only, discipline that can call it to account.

Philosophy of Science is an incredibly important field and will only become more important as we advance in the sciences--it has revealed and dealt with issues such as, our epistemic prejudice (ie the belief that most people hold that our current science is 'correct' even though history's course would increase the probability that it isn't), whether or not there actually is such a thing as scientific progress, or progress in general, how objectivity, as we frequently understand the concept, is grossly mishandled and probably an impossibility in its purest sense, how methods of verification can lead us astray... the list goes on.

Philosophy is important and I wish more people studied it or at least had a general familiarity with it. It really should be a gen ed requirement down to the Jr. high level.

Re:Has philosophy ever clarified mathematics? by abecedarius on Tuesday February 28, 2017 @05:19PM (#13758701)
What is the goal? Is there progress that isn't either turning a problem into not-philosophy or, as one of the OP comments put it, preventing bad philosophy from muddying the conceptual waters? (The latter still counts as net value to the world if the bad philosophy in question is believed by people without being told by bad philosophers. Maybe that happens a lot -- I'm not sure.)
Re:Has philosophy ever clarified mathematics? by 4e8riufc4m9rvif on Tuesday February 28, 2017 @06:16PM (#13759215)
The primary goal, if there is any, is merely: a more complete understanding of the subject matter.
Re:Has philosophy ever clarified mathematics? by xenotb on Tuesday February 28, 2017 @07:08PM (#13759609)
I don't believe there's consensus in this, as philosophy might be the only discipline tasked with defining itself. Still, this is as good an answer as any.
Re:Has philosophy ever clarified mathematics? by samirillian on Wednesday March 01, 2017 @12:27AM (#13761413)
Hmmm, let's pick this apart:

1. the goals of philosophy are clear (since you can tell that this guy's answer is absolutely incorrect--though you have yet to mention what you believe the goals of philosophy to be) but, 2. the questions will never be answered

So you're saying philosophy leads from clear goals to unanswerable questions. Paradoxical.

Socrates said "I know that I do not know." I would recommend that you bring a similar humility to attempted definitions of philosophy.

Re:Has philosophy ever clarified mathematics? by mannykannot on Tuesday February 28, 2017 @04:56PM (#13758427)
Re:Has philosophy ever clarified mathematics? by posterboy on Wednesday March 01, 2017 @03:02AM (#13762134)
pffy, semantics.

>But the goal of philosophy is not to rigorize its way out of existence.

doesn't mean you shouldn't put rigor in your response instead of giving, like, your opinion.

>linguistics -- understood as the science of language -- will never be able to, say, tell us what the connection is between the word and the world. How would it?

First of all to understand what you are even trying to say requires linguistics. Secondly, you seem to make an linguistic argument to inform a philosophical idea.

Get off your high horse.

Re:Has philosophy ever clarified mathematics? by xenotb on Tuesday February 28, 2017 @07:06PM (#13759587)
Good posts, thanks. Happy to see them up top.
Re:Has philosophy ever clarified mathematics? by darklajid on Tuesday February 28, 2017 @04:19PM (#13757949)
You seem to have a certain grasp on that subject or at least feel very strong about it.

Unfortunately your post didn't correct any (perceived) mistake, it was mostly a longer way to write "That's not true". Would you be so kind and expand that reply a bit, so that I might find pointers/key words to look up myself?

Re:Has philosophy ever clarified mathematics? by 4e8riufc4m9rvif on Tuesday February 28, 2017 @05:40PM (#13758915)
I have a beginner level interest in philosophy of mind. I can attempt to add some information on how "...and today we're seeing philosophy of mind turn to neuroscience." is very wrong.

Neuroscience studies various structures and mechanisms of nervous system and brain. Even when they seemingly discuss 'consciousness', they tend to simply mean 'awareness'. I think most are generally familiar with other aspects of neuroscience.

In phil. of mind there are categories of consciousness or lack thereof, though Phenomenal Consciousness is more popular area of study (experiential side of consciousness). One of the key subject in Philosophy of mind try to show whether mind can possibly be physical (ex readable article: http://organizations.utep.edu/Portals/1475/nagel_bat.pdf), can mind be described computationally? (ex paper: http://consc.net/papers/rock.html) Phi. of mind also studies accesses of consciousness, study methods on how to go about studying contents of consciousness etc.

I've talked to neuroscientist who despise philosophers talking about conciseness and claim their ideas are silly or can be ignored. There has also been cases where big name neuroscientist proposed silly ideas about mind that philosophers wouldn't begin to consider.

In short they study different things.

Re:Has philosophy ever clarified mathematics? by naasking on Tuesday February 28, 2017 @09:27PM (#13760423)
> Neuroscience studies various structures and mechanisms of nervous system and brain. Even when they seemingly discuss 'consciousness', they tend to simply mean 'awareness'.

You should give neuroscientists more credit! Some of them are aware of the philosophical problems surrounding subjectivity, and have tried to tackle them [1]. That's one of my favoured scientific theories on the source of subjectivity.

I can also sympathize with the disdain with whic some neuroscientists view some philosophers of mind. They've debated some completely ridiculous theories of mind in order to rationalize human importance. These consciousness debates are following the arc of vitalism, which the science of biology eventually simply replaced, and I expect these neuroscientists see it as a waste of time for similar reasons.

[1] http://journal.frontiersin.org/article/10.3389/fpsyg.2015.00...

Re:Has philosophy ever clarified mathematics? by md224 on Tuesday February 28, 2017 @10:44PM (#13760896)
That attention schema theory is interesting but it still doesn't solve the Hard Problem: why information about colors looks like colors, why information about surfaces feels like a surface... how a biological system could experience joy or sadness, orgasm or terror, etc. They seem to be solving the very narrow problem of self-awareness, but not awareness in general. And I'm pretty self-awareness isn't a prerequisite for general awareness. (Just ask experienced drug users.)

To be fair, no existing theory can explain subjective experience, so it's not a knock on that theory specifically.

There seem to be a subset of human beings who have convinced themselves they aren't conscious, even though it's not clear who they think they've convinced or who did the convincing. If you're one of them, that's okay... it's just not a conclusion I would personally endorse ("I" being whatever force is selecting the words that you're currently reading).

P.S. If something concludes that it's aware, then is it aware it has reached that conclusion? And if so, would that lead to an infinite regress? Perhaps that's what consciousness is... an infinite regress of awareness. :)

Re:Has philosophy ever clarified mathematics? by ecrukjfxdiuu on Wednesday March 01, 2017 @12:05AM (#13761317)
Maybe, but also may not be so: it would then cause infinite consciousness/"I" to arise in ~me(?)~, which seems odd. These are very confusing topic that very much interests me.

My understanding is that there are a lot of developed theories in philosophy that tries to explain "ego/I/me" aspect of consciousness. A lot of it is highly technical material. I've been trying to fully understand the content of the book "The Transcendence of the Ego" by Satre for a while, where he claims:

"We should like to show here that the ego is neither formally nor materially in consciousness: it is outside, in the world. It is being of the world, like the ego of another." -- ie, gets rid of insider "I". Phenomenologically "I" being only a formal thing, not actual. (maybe-helpful discussion if you are interested: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=YNFWyYa7ef4)

Phenomenology, the subject, itself is very interesting. It's the most fundamental of sciences (previously thought it was physics).

Re:Has philosophy ever clarified mathematics? by naasking on Wednesday March 01, 2017 @08:06AM (#13763354)
> That attention schema theory is interesting but it still doesn't solve the Hard Problem: why information about colors looks like colors, why information about surfaces feels like a surface.

Because every sensation has to have some distinguishable characteristics from other sensation for functional purposes. That's not the hardest part of the hard problem, accounting for subjectivity was always the hard part. Certainly there are questions that aren't fully answered, but I think this paper demonstrates that neuroscience can and has started tackling the tough philosophical questions.

> They seem to be solving the very narrow problem of self-awareness, but not awareness in general. And I'm pretty self-awareness isn't a prerequisite for general awareness. (Just ask experienced drug users.)

I don't know what you mean. Certainly "altered states of consciousness" alter the operation of this attention schema theory, by altering signal strength of some perceptions and/or impeding the function of the attention schema apparatus somehow. I'm not sure what you think this means for this theory.

> There seem to be a subset of human beings who have convinced themselves they aren't conscious, even though it's not clear who they think they've convinced or who did the convincing.

You're grossly misrepresenting this position. I and others believe we don't have true subjective awareness. "Consciousness" is merely a label for a reducible phenomenon, like cars. So yes we are "conscious", but we don't mean the same thing you mean by "conscious", which carries far more ontological baggage that's only justified by weak thought experiments.

Finally, your cute yet all too common response begs the question by your use of "who", ie. no one needs convincing to begin with. In fact, if we're just automota then we're merely claiming that our perceptions yield a false conclusion about the existence of subjectivity. That's what it means to be an illusion.

Re:Has philosophy ever clarified mathematics? by md224 on Wednesday March 01, 2017 @01:34PM (#13766730)
> I don't know what you mean. Certainly "altered states of consciousness" alter the operation of this attention schema theory, by altering signal strength of some perceptions and/or impeding the function of the attention schema apparatus somehow. I'm not sure what you think this means for this theory.

I was just saying that subjective awareness doesn't require awareness of the self as observer. One can become engrossed in a movie without constantly thinking about one's place in relation to the movie. But on second thought, I'm probably misunderstanding some aspect of this theory, as this counterexample seems too obvious.

> I and others believe we don't have true subjective awareness.

I'm afraid this just makes no sense to me. Aren't you subjectively aware of the computer in front of your eyes? If you claim to not have "true subjective awareness", I'm curious what "true subjective awareness" would amount to.

An illusion is when our subjective experience of reality does not match actual reality, but to claim that our subjective experience is itself an illusion? That seems like a contradiction in terms.

Anyway, I'm sorry if this is coming across as flippant. I understand where your belief is coming from (I probably had it myself at one point) but it's just not the way I understand the world now.

For me, the knowledge that I have true subjective awareness is a basic first principle, along the lines of "I think, therefore I am". Maybe I'm a brain-in-a-vat and this is all virtual reality, but I'm definitely experiencing something. Are you trying to deny the fact that I have experiences and sensations, or something else? Maybe we're just talking past each other...

Also, what "weak thought experiments" are you referring to?

Re:Has philosophy ever clarified mathematics? by naasking on Wednesday March 01, 2017 @03:17PM (#13767874)
> One can become engrossed in a movie without constantly thinking about one's place in relation to the movie.

Being engrossed involves a suspension of awareness.

> I'm afraid this just makes no sense to me. Aren't you subjectively aware of the computer in front of your eyes? If you claim to not have "true subjective awareness", I'm curious what "true subjective awareness" would amount to.

True subjective awareness requires ontologically committing to dualism, because subjectivity is then irreducible. By which I mean that no account for true first-person experience is possible using only third-person objective facts.

> An illusion is when our subjective experience of reality does not match actual reality, but to claim that our subjective experience is itself an illusion? That seems like a contradiction in terms.

That definition of illusion begs the question, like I said, so I categorically reject it. If you eliminate the dependency on "subjective experience of reality" you get "perception of reality does not match actual reality", which is exactly what I said.

> For me, the knowledge that I have true subjective awareness is a basic first principle, along the lines of "I think, therefore I am".

Ah, but this too begs the question! The fallacy-free version is "this is a thought, therefore thoughts exist".

> Also, what "weak thought experiments" are you referring to?

P-zombies, Mary's room, etc.

Re:Has philosophy ever clarified mathematics? by saalweachter on Tuesday February 28, 2017 @11:31PM (#13761132)
I don't know that I'd say infinite. I mean, sit back and really focus on being aware that you're aware that you're aware... how many layers can you manage? 3? 12? 100?
Re:Has philosophy ever clarified mathematics? by dcre on Tuesday February 28, 2017 @05:24PM (#13758756)
All that's required to show that philosophy's aim is not to eliminate itself are a few examples of philosophical questions that are not reducible to scientific ones. Naturally the author of the quoted post could still argue that those examples are in fact reducible. They'd be wrong, but I'm sure they could attempt an argument. That's philosophy.

Here are some articles from the Stanford Encyclopedia of Philosophy on the mentioned topics that should point you in the right direction to start thinking for yourself about whether these questions are reducible to the empirical sciences:

Natural philosophy

Aristotle's natural philosophy: https://plato.stanford.edu/entries/aristotle-natphil/

Hume (look at the section on causation): https://plato.stanford.edu/entries/hume/

Philosophy of language

Wittgenstein: https://plato.stanford.edu/entries/wittgenstein/

Names: https://plato.stanford.edu/entries/names/

Philosophy of mind

Aristotle's psychology: https://plato.stanford.edu/entries/aristotle-psychology/

Kant's account of reason: https://plato.stanford.edu/entries/kant-reason/

Re:Has philosophy ever clarified mathematics? by dcre on Tuesday February 28, 2017 @05:29PM (#13758810)
Shorter version:

What is change? How do we know what we know? What is the relationship between speech and the thing spoken of? What is the relationship between knowledge and the thing known?

Re:Has philosophy ever clarified mathematics? by yk on Tuesday February 28, 2017 @08:05PM (#13759992)
To some extend the difference between a science of X and philosophy of X is, that scientists try to answer the question and philosophers try to understand the question. For example, "How does a particle move under constant force." A physicist is content with just describing the movement of the particle, a philosopher will start thinking about questions like, "What is a force?" and "What is a particle?" and go on to question if these are in some sense necessary categories etc.
Re:Has philosophy ever clarified mathematics? by falcor84 on Tuesday February 28, 2017 @04:33PM (#13758118)
Being a bit crude, I'd say that natural philosophy became natural science, philosophy of language became linguistics, and philosophy of mind became neuroscience in the same sense that primates "became" humans. The old ones still exist, but we generally don't particularly care about what they have to say anymore.
Re:Has philosophy ever clarified mathematics? by aaachilless on Tuesday February 28, 2017 @06:23PM (#13759277)
This is more than a bit crude in my opinion. For example, philosophy of mind "becomes" neuroscience in the sense that sometimes philosophical questions become scientifically tractable. But we certainly haven't managed to translate _every_ interesting philosophical problem for any field, let alone philosophy of mind, into science. Assuming we have is actually a bit absurd.

You could maybe get away with saying that we're fairly confident that _at some point_ we'll be able to accomplish such a feat (translating all interesting problems into scientifically decidable ones), but even that would be a super hairy/controversial assertion.

Re:Has philosophy ever clarified mathematics? by artpepper on Tuesday February 28, 2017 @06:50PM (#13759473)
Physics is arguably the most successful branch of science (at least in terms of the accuracy of its predictions), and yet physics hasn't resolved the basic dispute between Hume and Kant regarding the nature of causality and objective reality.

Same thing is likely to hold vis-a-vis neuroscience and philosophy of mind.

Re:Has philosophy ever clarified mathematics? by falcor84 on Tuesday February 28, 2017 @08:02PM (#13759967)
Let me ask this - if/when the issues regarding the nature of causality and objective reality are finally resolved, will this be a result in physics or in natural philosophy?
Re:Has philosophy ever clarified mathematics? by artpepper on Tuesday March 07, 2017 @02:31PM (#13813838)
If I knew, I'd be the next Hume :-)

I suspect it couldn't be a physics result, because the question is something like "Why does the universe follow natural laws at all" and/or "what IS a natural law, in metaphysical terms" ?

Re:Has philosophy ever clarified mathematics? by coldtea on Tuesday February 28, 2017 @05:49PM (#13758984)
>The old ones still exist, but we generally don't particularly care about what they have to say anymore.

Who is "we"? Americans? Because continental europeans very much care.

Re:Has philosophy ever clarified mathematics? by obstinate on Wednesday March 01, 2017 @12:59AM (#13761577)
I would be surprised if that were true for more than the tiniest fraction of continental Europeans. By "care," I mean, "will notice or be affected by any output of ongoing philosophical study." Of course educated people, even us benighted Americans, still care about our old favorite philosophers from centuries past.
Re:Has philosophy ever clarified mathematics? by coldtea on Wednesday March 01, 2017 @05:03AM (#13762603)
>I would be surprised if that were true for more than the tiniest fraction of continental European

Well, if by tiny you mean a good 5-10%, then yes. Besides, when was that number much higher?

Re:Has philosophy ever clarified mathematics? by Sharlin on Wednesday March 01, 2017 @04:32AM (#13762496)
It's not like "normal people" ever cared about philosophy either, however one defines "care".
Re:Has philosophy ever clarified mathematics? by dcre on Tuesday February 28, 2017 @05:17PM (#13758675)
Maybe you don't.
Re:Has philosophy ever clarified mathematics? by TheseDays888 on Tuesday February 28, 2017 @05:43PM (#13758940)
Yes, yes, subjective experience.

Did you notice the constraint:

> we generally don't particularly care about what they have to say anymore.

It's a human perspective way of saying it's not relevant to much the active work, but it still is being worked.

Re:Has philosophy ever clarified mathematics? by jamesrcole on Tuesday February 28, 2017 @06:27PM (#13759297)
> Philosophy of language has /not/ become linguistics, philosophy of mind has /not/ become neuroscience, and only a subset of natural philosophy has become natural science.

They didn't say Philosophy of X has become Science of X, they said When a component of Philosophy of X becomes rigorous it becomes part of Science of X.

Re:Has philosophy ever clarified mathematics? by twblalock on Tuesday February 28, 2017 @07:24PM (#13759734)
The parent comment included a verbatim quote from the page. It's what they said.
Re:Has philosophy ever clarified mathematics? by jamesrcole on Tuesday February 28, 2017 @11:42PM (#13761187)
The quote fits what I said
Re:Has philosophy ever clarified mathematics? by bryanrasmussen on Tuesday February 28, 2017 @04:43PM (#13758248)
Does the philosophy say anything about the meaning of the words 'broadly' and 'simplistic' because with those two modifiers in place this can be argued as the tendency of philosophy (but then most things can be argued so who cares).

That certain philosophical questions posed by Socrates have remained philosophical in nature does not make the claim invalid, just as the fact that many of the writings of Aristotle dealt with subjects that are no longer in the purview of philosophy does not conclusively prove the claim.

I guess I would have to say if anything invalidates the claim it is just that they have not exactly established what it means to have a point, nor shown that philosophy in a unified state has such a point that covers the whole. I personally do not believe it has a point, but then I don't believe any of things that are being argued as outgrowths of philosophy have points either.

Re:Has philosophy ever clarified mathematics? by unityByFreedom on Tuesday February 28, 2017 @06:29PM (#13759315)
Philosophy can be seen as the hypothesis phase of the scientific method.

Not sure why that's so controversial. Good scientists make guesses and work to prove or disprove them.

Re:Has philosophy ever clarified mathematics? by tikhonj on Tuesday February 28, 2017 @06:57PM (#13759522)
I don't think that's fair, any more than it would be fair to say mathematics is the hypothesis phase either. Mathematics might be used to build scientific theories, but mathematics itself is self-contained and doesn't need to reference the physical world at all. The goals of mathematics, the methods mathematicians use and the results they produce are largely orthogonal to the physical world.

This might be less true for areas of applied math, but that just shows how the boundaries of any field are fuzzy. The same for philosophy: most of it deals with questions—and, subsequently, arguments and answers—that are fundamentally distinct from science. There are certain areas classically part of philosophy that have become the subject of physics or psychology or the social sciences, but these parts do not characterize philosophy as a whole.

Re:Has philosophy ever clarified mathematics? by SCHiM on Tuesday February 28, 2017 @06:41PM (#13759418)
It's not controversial, it's just not what philosophy is I think.

Far be it from me to be able to give a precise (much less consise) definition of what it is exactly, but it's not merely the hypothetical phase when doing science.

Immediately metaphysics comes to mind as a philosophical field that is 'unscientific' in the sense that sometimes(mostly?) advances are not made by empirical measurements in an axiomatic system, but by convoluted and extreme thought-experiments with 0 experimental underpinnings.

Another example is pointed out above, in the philosophy of mind, about the fundamental difference between seeing an experience happen (for example with a brain scan/direct measurement of neurons) and actually experiencing something. That is not something that you can easily touch with science/surveys/brainscans/etc.

Re:Has philosophy ever clarified mathematics? by Chris2048 on Tuesday February 28, 2017 @05:10PM (#13758613)
> philosophy of mind has /not/ become neuroscience

Instead it remains stuck in the past, refusing modern understanding. Much of the subset of natural philosophy that didn't become natural science is the stuff that didn't make the cut - i.e the junk.

> The answerer has either no actual grasp of the history or content of philosophy, or has simply decided, apparently by fiat, to discard all but the most narrow positivism-flavored slice as nonsense.

Yeah yeah, and if you don't believe in god, you don't understand the bible well enough. Same old story.

Re:Has philosophy ever clarified mathematics? by 4e8riufc4m9rvif on Tuesday February 28, 2017 @05:53PM (#13759009)
Phil. of mind and neuroscience has different subject of study, in most cases, beyond the basics, they can just ignore each other. I think you might have a very bad misunderstanding of what philosophy is.
Re:Has philosophy ever clarified mathematics? by Chris2048 on Tuesday February 28, 2017 @07:49PM (#13759887)
> beyond the basics, they can just ignore each other

To re-iterate, philosophy of mind chooses to ignore neuroscience. Again, more "you don't understand", but no substance.

Re:Has philosophy ever clarified mathematics? by ecrukjfxdiuu on Wednesday March 01, 2017 @12:16AM (#13761379)
See from earlier: https://news.ycombinator.com/reply?id=13758915&goto=threads%...

If not helpful, you may choose to look it up on Internet on specifics of topic of study, not sure what sort of substance would suffice.

If you want to look at a sort of caricatured version of this science-vs-philosphy-misunderstanding discussion, you may choose to watch this: https://youtu.be/9tH3AnYyAI8

Re:Has philosophy ever clarified mathematics? by Chris2048 on Wednesday March 01, 2017 @06:44AM (#13762986)
> consciousness

> whether mind can possibly be physical

I re-iterate my comparison to religion, theistic philosopher reason similarly about the soul/god/etc.

philosophical junk. There's a reason "neuroscientists despise philosophers talking about conciseness".

> silly ideas about mind that philosophers wouldn't begin to consider

What authority do philosophers have to label anything silly?

> they study different things

Reminds me of the claims made about religion vs science, that science can only study the 'physical', where religion is needed to explore the 'spiritual'.

Re:Has philosophy ever clarified mathematics? by 38oie4rcf4xim on Wednesday March 01, 2017 @03:12PM (#13767815)
> I re-iterate my comparison to religion, theistic philosopher reason similarly about the soul/god/etc.

I'd guess most philosophers of mind would love to understand how - or show that mind is indeed physical. But it is not as simple a job as it might seem; like any rigorous subject, you'll have to have familiarity of the subject matter to understand why that is the case (and if you are looking for argument, one can't hope to summarize many years of technical papers and necessary background on a HN comment)

> What authority do philosophers have to label anything silly?

They are the expert of their field, why wouldn't they have authority there? If I throw out some idea about physics, I'd guess physicists should have first authority to decide whether my idea is silly.

> Reminds me of the claims made about religion vs science, that science can only study the 'physical', where religion is needed to explore the 'spiritual'.

As far as I'm aware, philosophy of mind has absolutely no religious motivations. Most are proponent of some physicalist theory, but many of those would probably say -we are not fully there yet to show how it is possible.

Re:Has philosophy ever clarified mathematics? by Chris2048 on Thursday March 02, 2017 @08:14AM (#13773764)
> like any rigorous subject

I don't consider it a rigorous subject.

> you'll have to have familiarity of the subject matter to understand why that is the case

Do you have this understanding?

> one can't hope to summarize many years of technical papers

Of course you can, that's what summarize means. Can you explain to me what 'technical' means in this context?

> They are the expert of their field

Phrenologists are experts in their field too; what authority does that field have?

> As far as I'm aware, philosophy of mind has absolutely no religious motivations

The comparison was wrt the study of doubtful concepts.

> many of those would probably say -we are not fully there yet to show how it is possible.

"not yet there"? We are not quite able to prove the existence of god either.

What progress has been made, in either case?

Re:Has philosophy ever clarified mathematics? by 394cu239meoricf on Thursday March 02, 2017 @04:09PM (#13778243)
Not sure if I should continue to comment here.

> I don't consider it a rigorous subject.

Many universities offer undergrad, masters and phd level work in this subject. Could be helpful to know why you think it is not rigorous.

> Do you have this understanding?

Like I said, I have a beginner level interest in the subject, ie, I have taken a undergrad. level relevant course in psychology and one in philosophy of mind, and occasionally read related books.

Maybe you do have a full explanatory theory of qualia, of other mind, transcendence of objects in perception, unification of consciousness, how consciousness leads to another, forming the concept of "I" in addition to "me", how to speak of contents of consciousness in their own right and so on.

There's various thought experiments to highlight some of the basic problems that you have to go through, (ex: https://plato.stanford.edu/entries/qualia-knowledge/)

If you you have a complete explanation of mind in physical term, please do share or write some papers on some journals so people can slow down on AIs and start building a mind.

Re:Has philosophy ever clarified mathematics? by Chris2048 on Friday March 03, 2017 @06:00AM (#13782043)
> Many universities offer undergrad, masters and phd level work in this subject. Could be helpful to know why you think it is not rigorous.

Do you consider the fact that universities offer philosophy courses proof of authenticity? Are religious studies proof of god?

I consider non-analytic philosophy non-rigorous on the basis that the tools of thought are subjective, emotive and rely on juggling poorly defined concepts with little empirical verification.

> Maybe you do have a full explanatory theory of

Nice try. But the burden isn't on me to clarify dubious concepts. Do you have a full theory of the holy trinity?

> highlight some of the basic problems

> so people can slow down on AIs and start building a mind

pure philosophy will not solve these problems. can you point me to a philosophy paper that has made any progress in "building a mind"? What is the philosophical method for interrogation an empirical phenomenon?

Re:Has philosophy ever clarified mathematics? by 3498rtigcufk on Friday March 03, 2017 @06:09PM (#13787768)
Philosophy is not some sort of church where everyone praise some emotionally agreed upon idea... You seems to be turning this into some sort of us vs. them game based on your faulty projections, so I hope to stop here. (Btw, If you are getting your ideas about philosophy from popular youtube channels like https://www.youtube.com/user/schooloflifechannel or https://www.youtube.com/playlist?list=PL8dPuuaLjXtNgK6MZucdY... , maybe I can understand why you have such misunderstandings)

-----------

If you happen to be interested anytime, you can start with some very introductory resources I bothered to look up for you (most are video, they are easy to consume):

+ Donald Hoffman - computational theory of mind, someone closer to HN's demographic (https://youtu.be/cUhrK82seVY)

+ John Searl is good speaker so try his talk (https://youtu.be/rHKwIYsPXLg)

+ Some thought experiments (remember that thought experiments are not highlighters of issue, not complete arguments) https://www.youtube.com/playlist?list=PLz0n_SjOttTdUVuUqefi6...

+ If you want to know what a complete technical work looks like, here's one I've been reading: http://a.co/2xF4PPB

+ Not agreed upon but a fun one to not include - about: what is philosophy: https://youtu.be/dp8aTYUrPi0

+ Science vs philosophy sort of video, slow but good discussion in there: https://youtu.be/9tH3AnYyAI8

+ http://a.co/i96KFPs

In the unlikely case that you become very interested, you can look up "Introduction to philosophy of mind syllabus" and go through the materials and/or books of your choice on the subject.

-----------

> What is the philosophical method for interrogation an empirical phenomenon

That would go into philosophy of science, which I have absolutely no familiarity with. I'm guessing, to a philosopher of science, 'empirical' isn't such a simple subject as recording something that scientist would call it. I did watch this very interesting video once about phil. of science: https://youtu.be/5ng-t0o7E-w

Re:Has philosophy ever clarified mathematics? by Chris2048 on Sunday March 05, 2017 @05:16PM (#13799116)
> You seems to be turning this into some sort of us vs. them game based on your faulty projections

Really, how so? you're the one assuming the authority of philosophy, not me. How are my projections 'faulty'? You just keep pivoting, and claiming there to be some counterpoint, somewhere, even though you can't seem to supply them yourself.

> you can start with some very introductory resources

No thanks, implicit to this move is the suggestion that I need to read "very introductory" material. I don't.

> That would go into philosophy of science, which I have absolutely no familiarity with

Then you have no basis for arguing with me?

Re:Has philosophy ever clarified mathematics? by Chris2048 on Wednesday March 01, 2017 @10:22AM (#13764342)
As an aside, ecrukjfxdiuu, - any relation to 4e8riufc4m9rvif ?
Re:Has philosophy ever clarified mathematics? by 38oie4rcf4xim on Wednesday March 01, 2017 @03:15PM (#13767853)
I'm the same person as the other two, sorry about the confusion, just temporary account per session - still setting up after reinstalling my OS again.
Re:Has philosophy ever clarified mathematics? by cokernel on Tuesday February 28, 2017 @11:18PM (#13761067)
> Phil. of mind and neuroscience has different subject of study, in most cases

You may find the work of Patricia Churchland an interesting exception.

Re:Has philosophy ever clarified mathematics? by Chris2048 on Wednesday March 01, 2017 @06:46AM (#13762996)
Or https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Sam_Harris#Neuroscience

of course, if you encounter philosophers/scholars/believers who argue about whether the mind can be physical, it's a lost cause..

Re:Has philosophy ever clarified mathematics? by 38oie4rcf4xim on Wednesday March 01, 2017 @03:46PM (#13768109)
I don't think philosophers would see Harris as their peer. It may also be questionable whether he was a neuroscientist at all (https://shadowtolight.wordpress.com/2015/01/07/neuroscientis...)
Re:Has philosophy ever clarified mathematics? by Chris2048 on Thursday March 02, 2017 @08:16AM (#13773773)
Can you explain what you mean by Harris not being accepted?
Re:Has philosophy ever clarified mathematics? by 394cu239meoricf on Thursday March 02, 2017 @04:13PM (#13778277)
That was the nicer way of putting it, he is generally made fun of(or maybe that's my bubble, can't be sure) for oversimplifying philosophical subject matters...
Re:Has philosophy ever clarified mathematics? by TheseDays888 on Tuesday February 28, 2017 @05:41PM (#13758919)
They qualify this to an extent:

> broadly the point of philosophy

> In extremely simplistic historical terms

It doesn't mean that all areas have been proven, or that they all will be.

It is often that topics of philosophy have generated real outcomes, it may very well seem that philosophy -> real world outcome.

And consider the forum. It's not as if this is a university course in philosophy.

You seem to have found one thing to nitpick and ignored the rest of the response. Respectfully, I suggest you hang the ax back up, and stop pushing the pedal on the stone.

Re:Has philosophy ever clarified mathematics? by wbl on Wednesday March 01, 2017 @12:59AM (#13761574)
Or he has read Wittgenstein and believes him. Why do philosophers act surprised when some of their number are taken seriously?
Re:Has philosophy ever clarified mathematics? by bykovich on Wednesday March 01, 2017 @01:08AM (#13761616)
The Tractatus? Wittgenstein didn't believe that.
Re:Has philosophy ever clarified mathematics? by justin66 on Tuesday February 28, 2017 @06:04PM (#13759115)
> elided the grasp

Huh?

Re:Has philosophy ever clarified mathematics? by igravious on Wednesday March 01, 2017 @03:17AM (#13762198)
They mean eluded
Re:Has philosophy ever clarified mathematics? by eruditely on Tuesday February 28, 2017 @06:00PM (#13759069)
More entry level nonsense, pure empiricism was undone by the problem of induction. Philosophy has generated several theories of probability, your "science" is contributing towards ruin risk with advocacy of GMO's and via Taleb && NESCI I know GMO's are not safe. Your "science" has done little progress without industry following a profit motive, of which science owes it's progress to industry and also much of it's credit.

"Universities are good at claiming credit, and little else."