You're right about "smart." There are other minor inaccuracies that other people pointed out. The origin of "fuck" isn't clear. Were the anglo-saxons actually enslaved? (I'd say yes. Serfdom/slavery, what's the differece?) I didn't write this thing like a researcher. I wrote it like a daytime applied linguist with a secret passion for his crazy-ass blog. I'll do a rigorous one if people actually want that.
the sort of guy
These sound like nice simple Anglo Saxon words, but:
"sort" – 1200–50; (noun) Middle English < Middle French sorte
"guy" – 1300–50; Middle English gye < Old French guie, a guide, derivative of guier to guide
You played with these words in several parts of the post, which made it all the more entertaining a read.
I like the hypothesis, I'm sure there must be some research on this.
There is a writing style guide written by a well-known English author, Victorian era, that suggests using saxon over romance words for clarity. I feel this is valid (also more concise, more punchy (more consonants)). I thought it was Kipling but perhaps not... somebody help me out?
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Politics_and_the_English_Langua...
Rule 5 states: Never use a foreign phrase, a scientific word, or a jargon word if you can think of an everyday English equivalent.
http://www.mtholyoke.edu/acad/intrel/orwell46.htm
"Bad writers, and especially scientific, political, and sociological writers, are nearly always haunted by the notion that Latin or Greek words are grander than Saxon ones..."
"For example, the word "photograph" (from Greek light+writing) would become "sun-print" (from Saxon). Other terms include "wortlore" (botany), "welkinfire" (meteor) and "nipperlings" (forceps)."
See also http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Anglo-Saxon_linguistic_purism
There's cases where Swiss French (counting), Quebecois French (conjugation of many verbs) etc is more logical or more consistent, but the changes are rejected as foreign by the Académie.
Edit: Oops Jacques beat me too it.
A lot of comedy comes from using the "wrong" register for a given situation, and a lot of amusement for English speakers learning German comes from the fact that Germanic languages gave us our informal-register vocabulary (our formal vocabulary came from Greek and Latin by way of French).
(thus, for example, a science student giggles a bit at the seemingly-informal "Wasserstoff", sounding as it does like "water stuff", but doesn't bat an eye at "hydrogen", even though the Greek root words mean essentially the same thing)
What exactly do you mean when you say "derived via German smerzan"? Smerzan and smart have the same origin in common West Germanic, whereas the other two have their origin in common PIE (along with Slavic 'Sm(e)rt' meaning 'death').
If what you meant to say is that the word is derived from Greek smerdnos (via Latin and German), then you're reading your dictionary wrong because those are simply etymologically related words.
"Old english smeortan; related to Old High German smerzan, Latin mordere to bite, Greek smerdnos terrible"
Thank you for the correction.
As for the specific policeman example, you are probably right to say that "individual" is used because it is a useful non-offensive abstraction for the various sub-classes of human, but policeman-speak is still well-known for being unnecessarily verbose (from our biased anti-latin perspective as English speakers). Perhaps a better example would be choosing to use verbs like "locate" rather than "find".
> "locate" rather than "find"
As it happens... I disagree this example is any better. To locate is to "discover the position" of something; to find is to "meet with or discover by chance" (that's my emphasis, but both are primary definitions from Collins English).
Could be it's just hard to meaningfully extrapolate those class-based connotations forwards 1000 years in an enjoyable pop-sci article.
Policeman-speak is closer to lawyer-speak because police spend a lot of time writing reports that are subject to cross examination in court. Police and lawyers must communicate clearly (in legal-speak) despite any difference in class.
For one thing LEOs don't say "individual" because they're romance language kowtowers but rather because it's an instance of the largest valid superclass of man/child/woman/girl/boy/teenager/infant/...
Similarly, it's not "Sir, please get out of the Porsche 911" but "Sir, please get out of the vehicle". "Vehicle" is factually correct whatever the beliefs of the other party ("this is not just a car!").
Perhaps I'm not smart enough to catch all of the nuances in the article. For example the very first sentence's "grandmother" is splendidly etymologically ambiguous (grossmutter/grandmere), is this intentional?
Similarly "smart" (allegedly dumb German word) is derived via German smerzan, Latin mordere, Greek smerdnos (according to my dictionary).