If we are to reinterpret France's wrongs in light of modern norms, why not too interpret the wrong of the Haitian's? Why is this "rules for thee?"
The greater picture is this: Haitians were slaves and had every right to fight against their oppression. The "white Europeans" belonged back home in France. They brought it on themselves.
I always like to use this thought experiment: which of the two sides had power to change the situation?
The Haitians couldn't help being slaves until they rebelled. The French could from the very start choose not to be slavers.
Details matter.
It does matter if they were brought as slaves and against their will, and made by force to call Haiti their home. I hope you see the difference between this and the children the settlers brought with them. Comparing children to slavery is nonsense.
I was not making any statements on settler colonialism which is a separate issue entirely. I was just saying, the French cannot claim be victims when they were the ones engaging in slavery.
Actually Europeans did the same in not so long ago, not as slaves, but as slavers (or some more fancy words), so people can go down much further IMHO.
Sure, and the Soviets claimed the Katyn massacre was perpetrated by the Nazis.
Consider sprinkling a few grains of salt on contemporary accounts by interested parties.
(Of course, this too is a crass generalization.)
To calrify (reagrding comments) I'm not saying this is noble deed but I would not judge them with ordinary moral standards.