“The World Health Organization estimates that 2–3% of those who were infected died (case-fatality ratio).
[...]
In Iran, the mortality was very high: according to an estimate, between 902,400 and 2,431,000, or 8% to 22% of the total population died.” — source, Wikipedia, see [0].
I wonder if it’s genetics (immune system reacts differently?), or cultural (habits - kissing on cheeks, handshaking, large religious or non-religious gatherings) or climate, or a mix.
References: [0]: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Spanish_flu
Edit: admittedly, it’s too early to draw conclusions. It’ll take a few weeks to have more realistic numbers.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Angiotensin-converting_enzyme_...
What's happening now has more to do with their theocratic regime that didn't take the threat seriously and doesn't care much about their people.
That doesn't sound unreasonable at all when the two outbreaks are separated by a century. A lot has changed between 1920 and 2020.
Iran is a theocratic authoritarian regime under extreme international sanctions. Might have something to do with that. Iran also only has 0.2 hospital beds per 1k people.
https://www.cia.gov/library/publications/the-world-factbook/...
The Europeans cannot enforce the JCPOA without either some kind of American cooperation or a major decoupling their financial systems from the US. I believe Macron has made public musing about the latter as an option, but then again Macron says a lot of things that lack pan-european support.
They could easily have had an undiagnosed underlying condition that made them more susceptible to complications. This is to be expected in places like Iran with severe limitations in their healthcare system. It might be a more useful data point if it was from the US, UK, Spain, etc.
\* I should say this is anecdata, based on comments by several Iranian friends and acquaintances.
Like he said, severe limitations.
Just wondering if that's true. It does look like that's the case:
https://www.gapminder.org/tools/#$state$entities$show$geo$/$...
What is "higher viral load"? Isn't it binary - you are either infected or not?
Viral load is literally a numerical expression of the quantity of virus in a given volume. It is often expressed as viral particles, or infectious particles per mL depending on the type of assay. And a higher viral load often correlates with the severity of an active viral infection.
Ex: 3^10 v.s. 30^10
The first hypothesis is likely based on the number of infections found in international travellers who went to Iran. We still cannot rule out the second hypothesis though.
A 23-year-old woman soccer player: https://www.reddit.com/r/Coronavirus/comments/faadg4/a_23_ye...
A male nurse talking of 8 deaths in one night during his shift. 23-year-old female (same case?), 29- and 30-year-old males, 50-year-old female among them. (1-minute clip)
EDIT: It's just n=8, but 37.5% dying at age 30 or below is most likely drawn from a different distribution from 0.6% among the 70,000+ cases in the largest Chinese study (where the worldometers data comes from).
EDIT 2: Based on a link in a sibling comment, only 7 deaths among 20-29 yo and 18 deaths among 30-39 yo in the n=44,672 Chinese report.
https://twitter.com/AlinejadMasih/status/1232779487647031302
http://weekly.chinacdc.cn/en/article/id/e53946e2-c6c4-41e9-9...