If these records are incomplete, the judge decides against the police with prejudice.
If the records are complete and there isn’t indications they copied the data and performed analysis entirely off the books, then we say that we’ve proven analysis didn’t happen.
The reason being sufficient examples and even game-theoretic arguments (mind you, these are 'nerds', they can find someone well-versed in game theory if needed) show a lack of (expected) trustworthiness of a non-corroborated testimony of such a human.
I'd assume if you're involved in a lawsuit against the police, and they make a factual claim like "we did not analyze items not listed in the warrant", that there's some sort of perjury type charge there.
While the police are allowed to lie to you, that's usually restricted to interrogations ("your partner has already flipped") not lying to the lawyer for the person suing you.
That seems like you're playing semantics.
A contempt charge is a type of criminal charge. My contention is that if a lawyer, during discovery, asks the police a question like "did you analyze the data" and they lie they'd face issues.
So it looks like we're in agreement :)
https://dejure.org/gesetze/StPO/136a.html
According to this law, deception is a prohibited interrogation method.
No idea how this is handled in practice and what the loopholes are.
I have a vague memory of a confession in Switzerland being invalidated because of this, but can't find a source at the moment.