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Re:Google Might Have Walked Into A Nestle Boycott Problem Wi... by booop on Friday September 13, 2013 @05:33AM (#6379403)
Just wondering, why do you use 'their' when it's quite obvious that it's a man?
Re:Google Might Have Walked Into A Nestle Boycott Problem Wi... by DanBC on Friday September 13, 2013 @05:46AM (#6379440)
Singular their has a long established use.

(http://crossmyt.com/hc/linghebr/austheir.html)

Re:Google Might Have Walked Into A Nestle Boycott Problem Wi... by booop on Friday September 13, 2013 @05:58AM (#6379461)
Going by that page, AndrewDucker's usage of the singular their is incorrect.
Re:Google Might Have Walked Into A Nestle Boycott Problem Wi... by James_Duval on Friday September 13, 2013 @05:56AM (#6379457)
Probably for the same reason you use 'it' when it's quite obvious he's a 'he', it's a more convenient and more colloquial way of phrasing something.

*EDIT: for tone & clarity

Re:Google Might Have Walked Into A Nestle Boycott Problem Wi... by kevingadd on Friday September 13, 2013 @06:03AM (#6379471)
Not sure what you mean, referring to a person as 'it' is almost universally offensive, at least in the US.
Re:Google Might Have Walked Into A Nestle Boycott Problem Wi... by mcv on Friday September 13, 2013 @06:35AM (#6379580)
Even when referring to a child of unknown gender? Or a fetus? In Dutch, those are acceptable uses for it (or actually "het").