Why do you think it asked Israel to prevent acts of Genocide instead of asking both sides of preventing acts of Genocide?

Do you believe that if there’s no suspicion that acts of Genocide are being committed by the IDF the court could have emitted such ruling?

I’m not trying to fight in here. You don’t need to be condescending this is not reddit my friend.

> Why do you think it asked Israel to prevent acts of Genocide instead of asking both sides of preventing acts of Genocide?

Hamas explicitly calls for the destruction of Israel and Jews. Nobody has any doubts around what they would do if they had military supremacy.

The ICJ won’t order them to not commit acts of genocide because they aren’t the object of South Africa’s complaint. (I also don’t believe they fall under ICJ jurisdiction, being a non-state actor.)

I apologize for my tone, this is something i am passionate about.

Hamas has always been pretty open about their intent for genocide[1]. The ICJ had a specific case brought by a specific country on specific charges against Israel. The ICJ ruled against them.

Israel is in the middle of a bloody war in an urban environment filled with civilians. Of course Israel should follow the rules of war and try to limit civilian casualties, which is what the preventing acts of genocide was about.

[1] https://www.theatlantic.com/international/archive/2023/10/ha...