Has it been determined more substantially that Pfizer and Moderna did not study transmission while the vaccines were in development?
Except of course, the mandates. The main argument for healthy people to get it was to save granny. Except they never bothered to study transmission, which means they lied to get the mandates in place. It's not that they "just didn't know". It's that they knew they were lying when they said mandates were needed to stop transmission.
So now that creates a huge problem moving forward. Who but the most subservient will ever believe anything they say now?
Like the inactivated poliovirus [1]? Sterilising vaccines [2] haven’t been a priority because the subpopulation that enjoys getting measles was historically small.
> OPV produces excellent immunity in the intestine, the primary site of wild poliovirus entry, which helps prevent infection with wild virus in areas where the virus is endemic.
It seems like the polio vaccine actually prevents infection which is not the case for the COVID “vaccine” which is purely therapeutical.
OPV (“o” as in oral) sterilises. IPV (“i” as in inactivated) doesn’t. IPV doesn’t spread vaccine-derived poliovirus, so it’s the more widely-used one. (It comes down to whether the virus is neutralised in the gut or the blood.)
The polio case in Brooklyn was an unvaccinated man getting a vaccine-derived infection from the sterilising OPV [1][2].
[1] https://www.medpagetoday.com/special-reports/exclusives/1010...