https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_companies_convicted_of...
>Volkswagen AG (VW) has agreed to plead guilty to three criminal felony counts
https://www.justice.gov/opa/pr/volkswagen-ag-agrees-plead-gu...
>A four-count felony criminal information was filed today in federal court in the Eastern District of New York charging HSBC with willfully failing to maintain an effective anti-money laundering (AML) program,
https://www.justice.gov/opa/pr/bae-systems-plc-pleads-guilty...
>Q. Can a corporation be held criminally liable in the same way as an individual can be held liable?
>A. Yes. A corporation can be prosecuted for essentially all of the same crimes as individuals and, if proven guilty beyond a reasonable doubt, convicted of felonies and misdemeanors.
https://www.mololamken.com/assets/htmldocuments/FAQs%20-%20C...
In quite a few criminal cases, but not all, the company was charged without any individual being held criminally liable.
>If there is no company then why don't individuals become felons when a company is convicted of a felony?
Convicting a mid-level manager of murder because he turned a valve on, when they to the best of their knowledge, had no idea it would result in 100 people dying in a fire would also not be justice - at least if the necessary records got lost by some lower level functionary somewhere else, and it never got fixed because an exec somewhere was prioritizing some other work elsewhere without having the records of how bad it was.
PG&E has 26,000 employees. Even with as screwed up as it is, the problem is the organization itself. Putting all 26k people in jail doesn't solve the problem either.
They do. Companies cannot be charged with criminal offenses, so "when a company is convicted of a felony" describes a non-event. Only humans can be charged and convicted of criminal misconduct.