> use of money is not the same as the marginal utility

Yes, but as I said above, in this case having use is defined relative to promoting your own satisfaction as a consumer.

I think you are trying to tease apart "utility" vs "use", but to have utility is the property of having use. It's a question of what the utility/use is in reference to, and for economists, that utility is in reference to preference satisfaction by the consumers.

And even when using that definition, it doesn't mean there is less use. It will add marginal use for each addtional dollar, and increase overall use.