1) The vaccinated are not getting it anywhere near the rates of the unvaccinated, so they are not spreading it at anywhere close to how much the unvaccinated spread it.

2) If they do spread it to another vaccinated person, that person is highly unlikely to get very sick at all.

3) If they spread it to an unvaccinated person, that person is much more likely to get sick and have a better opportunity to spread it to even more people.

4) People who get sick & end up in the hospital still have lots of time before they get to spread the virus before being hospitalized.

5) Vaccinated people who get COVID are infectious to others for significantly less time than unvaccinated people.

6) Current does not show vaccinated people causing new or more powerful strains. [0]

7) New strains are still significantly less infectious & dangerous for those who are vaccinated.

So I fail to see how your points are relevant from an overall risk-reduction point of view. Available evidence points towards vaccination as a superior risk reduction mechanism than the alternative (which I guess is do nothing? If not, please clarify) that you are proposing.

[0] https://www.reuters.com/article/factcheck-vaccine-variants/f...

2) Again to point 1

3) They will most likely spread it back to said vaccinated people who are less likely to get sick

4) Back to point 3

5) Has this been proved anywhere?

6) For the time being. The delta variant only mutated 12 months after the first infection

That would be my guess, since actual evidence shows that vaccinated people are infectious for a significantly shorter period of time:

https://www.cdc.gov/coronavirus/2019-ncov/variants/delta-var...

You are trying to condense a very complex scenario into a very simple argument.

"With the BNT162b2 vaccine, the effectiveness of two doses was 93.7% (95% CI, 91.6 to 95.3) among persons with the alpha variant and 88.0% (95% CI, 85.3 to 90.1) among those with the delta variant. With the ChAdOx1 nCoV-19 vaccine, the effectiveness of two doses was 74.5% (95% CI, 68.4 to 79.4) among persons with the alpha variant and 67.0% (95% CI, 61.3 to 71.8) among those with the delta variant." https://www.nejm.org/doi/full/10.1056/NEJMoa2108891

On the contrary, I'm actually tightening my estimation to "more than 67%" (95% CI @ 61.3%-71.8%). BNT162b2 is Pfizer, ChAdOx1 is AstraZeneca.

> (...) also are less likely to develop symptoms and so will most likely not isolate when you are infected.

Yup, so multiply those likelihoods and let me know what number you arrived at and what assumptions did you take so that we can compare some concrete estimations. Or share some article that tried to estimate this.

> You are trying to condense a very complex scenario into a very simple argument.

I'm willing to be convinced otherwise by some data, so far the only thing you're offering is an opinion.