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Re:How many real numbers exist? New proof moves closer to an... by hutzlibu on Friday July 16, 2021 @05:50AM (#27854588)
"the claim that the set of natural numbers has the same size as that of the rational numbers"

Where can I read more about that? Because, both are infinite, but there still should be more rational numbers, than natural numbers?

Re:How many real numbers exist? New proof moves closer to an... by quisnam on Friday July 16, 2021 @06:31AM (#27854775)
Many entry-level real analysis courses will cover cardinality after introducing sets and functions. There's also a short article on Wikipedia. [0]

Your intuition about there being more rational numbers might be based on viewing the rationals as a proper superset of the natural numbers. You might similarly consider that there are more natural numbers than even natural numbers. However, by "renaming" every even number, and that shouldn't change how many there are, to half its value, we obtain the natural numbers. Formally, there exists a bijection between N and 2N, as between N and Q, and this is what mathematicians mean when they say that sets have the same size, or cardinality.

[0]: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Cardinality

Re:How many real numbers exist? New proof moves closer to an... by Someone on Friday July 16, 2021 @02:37PM (#27859617)
To add, for hutzlibu and others like them: as soon as infinite sets (or sequences. See https://plus.maths.org/content/when-things-get-weird-infinit...) are involved math gets counter-intuitive.

In this case, at most one of these two a priori quite reasonable statements can be true:

- if set B is a strict superset of A, B is larger than A.

- if you can map the times in A to the items in B in 1:1 fashion, A and B have the same size.

Giving up the first is deemed less problematic than giving up the second (probably because that means giving up comparing sizes of infinite sets at all, but I’m not familiar enough with that to be sure about that)

Re:How many real numbers exist? New proof moves closer to an... by gwf on Saturday July 17, 2021 @05:24PM (#27868974)

  for a in range(1, Infinity):
      for b in range(a):
          print(a-b, "/" , b+1)
Will print out:

      1/1, 2/1, 1/2, 3/1, 2/2, 1/3, 4/1, 3/2, 2/3, 1/4, ...
Hence, we've just mapped all rationals (with duplicates) to a single linear list. Since any linear list can always be mapped to the naturals (1, 2, 3, ...), they have the same cardinality.

QED

Re:How many real numbers exist? New proof moves closer to an... by TheCondor on Friday July 16, 2021 @08:14AM (#27855474)
The proof is when you can create a bijective function between the sets then they have the same cardinality. The “zip” function can do this between integers and rationals.
Re:How many real numbers exist? New proof moves closer to an... by jari_mustonen on Friday July 16, 2021 @06:15AM (#27854697)
You can count rational numbers and everything countable is the size of infinity as natural numbers.

Google ”counting rational numbers” and ”different sizes of infinity” to learn more.