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Re:How many real numbers exist? New proof moves closer to an... by Someone on Thursday July 15, 2021 @06:42PM (#27850977)
> because it asserts the existence of natural numbers that have no "written form"

I don’t see why that should imply it wouldn't be "okay" to add ¬Con(ZFC).

It may be highly counterintuitive, but the history of mathematics is full of counterintuitive results that nowadays are accepted as true in mainstream mathematics.

Well-known examples are the existence of irrational numbers, the claim that the set of natural numbers has the same size as that of the rational numbers, the existence of hyperbolic geometry, and the Banach-Tarski paradox.

Re:How many real numbers exist? New proof moves closer to an... by graycat on Friday July 16, 2021 @04:01AM (#27853947)
The Banach-Tarski paradox is fine with me: Not all subsets of the real line or R^n for the set of real numbers R and positive integer n are measurable. Yes, the usual example of a non-measurable set uses the axiom of choice. The sets in the Banach-Tarski paradox are not measurable -- okay.

Of course the natural numbers can be put into 1-1 correspondence with the rationals -- how to show that is the classic Cantor diagonal argument.

At a tea before a seminar, I asked Max Zorn what Paul Cohen had just proved. Zorn didn't explain it and instead just loaned me his copy of Cohen's paper -- I lost it in a move! If Zorn wasn't strongly interested in Cohen's proof, then neither should I be.

For any set of axioms, there will be statements we can neither prove nor disprove. Surprising, interesting, got it.

Zermelo-Fraenkel set theory with the axiom of choice seem fine to me -- now back to the real work!

Re:How many real numbers exist? New proof moves closer to an... by rssoconnor on Saturday July 17, 2021 @09:40PM (#27870173)
ZFC+¬Con(ZFC) proves "ZFC+¬Con(ZFC) is inconsistent".

So if were the case that ZFC+¬Con(ZFC) was sound then what it proves would be true, and "ZFC+¬Con(ZFC) is inconsistent" would be true. But that would mean ZFC+¬Con(ZFC) is actually inconsistent, and thus ZFC+¬Con(ZFC) would actually be unsound after all.

Re:How many real numbers exist? New proof moves closer to an... by rssoconnor on Thursday July 15, 2021 @07:59PM (#27851584)
It's not "okay" because such a system proves that various particular Turing machines halt when, in fact, those machines do not halt. See https://news.ycombinator.com/item?id=27847719.

But to be a bit more specific, ¬Con(ZFC) says that the Turing machine that searches for a contradiction in ZFC does indeed halt. However (in all likelihood) such a machine does not actually halt, in the sense that it does not halt in 1 step, and it does not halt in 2 steps, and it does not halt in 3 steps, etc., and indeed (in all likelihood) for each numeral n, ZFC even proves that the machine does not halt in n steps.

(Now there is a small possibility that maybe such a machine does halt in some particular number of steps. If it does actually halt, that means it has found a proof that ZFC is inconsistent. But this scenario is even worse, because it means that ZFC itself is not only unsound, but inconsistent, (and hence ZFC+¬Con(ZFC) is also inconsistent). In particular ZFC+¬Con(ZFC) being inconsistent means it proves that every Turing machine halts, which is even more wrong in general, even if it happens to be right about this particular machine.)

Re:How many real numbers exist? New proof moves closer to an... by a1369209993 on Thursday July 15, 2021 @08:42PM (#27851884)
> such a system proves that various particular Turing machines halt when, []in fact[], those machines do not halt.

Er, no. The fact is that there is no fact of the matter as to whether those particular Turing machines either a: do not halt at all, or b: halt after a (colloquially) infinite number of steps. (A implication of there being no fact of the matter is that, empirically, we can't tell the difference by running them, but we can't tell the difference for a machine that halts in 2^(2^(2^256)) steps (or not at all) either, so that's not very interesting on it's own.)

(As you note, we don't actually know that (for example) a Turing machines looking for contradictions in ZFC is one of those particular machines; indeed I'm not sure offhand if we actually know of any specific example of such a machine. But that's presumably not the issue here.)

Re:How many real numbers exist? New proof moves closer to an... by rssoconnor on Thursday July 15, 2021 @09:11PM (#27852039)
ZFC+¬Con(ZFC) either wrongly proves that the machine that searches for an inconsistency in ZFC halts, or it wrongly proves that `while(true)` halts. Either way ZFC+¬Con(ZFC) is wrong about something.
Re:How many real numbers exist? New proof moves closer to an... by ummonk on Saturday July 17, 2021 @02:48PM (#27867881)
Why is it wrong to say that the machine halts?
Re:How many real numbers exist? New proof moves closer to an... by rssoconnor on Saturday July 17, 2021 @07:36PM (#27869657)
ZFC+¬Con(ZFC) definitely proves that the machine that searches for an inconsistency in ZFC halts. That is a direct consequnce of ¬Con(ZFC). Keep in mind that by "proves" I'm only saying that there exists a logical deduction from the axioms. I'm not saying that it is true or false. Remember that logical deductions are "truth preserving", but we can only conclude that the conclusions are true if the axioms at the start are all true.

So again, we have a proof in some sketchy axiom system that the machine that searches for an inconsistency in ZFC halts. The question is whether that conclusion is a true statement or not, whether that machine actually does or does not halt. You can start up that program on your laptop while we consider it. Maybe it will halt during our discussion. I also want to point out that whether that conclusion is a true statement or not has no bearing on whether the deduction system was sound to begin with. Unsound systems can prove true statement, simply by accident rather than by design.

Case (1) that machine doesn't really halt, then ZFC+¬Con(ZFC) proves an untrue statement, and we thus the system is unsound.

Case (2) that machine does really halt. Then this particular conclusion wasn't untrue, but we have another problem. We can take the output of that machine, decode it, and we have a proof of an inconsistency in ZFC. Again this is just a deduction, it doesn't mean that math is wrong or the world ends. Just that the ZFC axiom system is so unsound that it is inconsistent, and it has some untrue axioms. Nevertheless we can use such a proof and derive a proof that ZFC prove `while(true)` halts, and in turn transform that into a proof in ZFC+¬Con(ZFC) that `while(true)` halts. And it is definitely the case that `while(true)` doesn't halt. So in this case we have found a different but still untrue statement that ZFC+¬Con(ZFC) proves. Our conclusion is the same: ZFC+¬Con(ZFC) is unsound.

So in either case `ZFC+¬Con(ZFC)` proves some machine halts that doesn't. I haven't concluded which of the two machines it is wrong about though I have my personal suspicions, but it is definitely wrong about one of them.

Re:How many real numbers exist? New proof moves closer to an... by a1369209993 on Monday July 19, 2021 @03:11AM (#27880016)
> if the axioms at the start are all true.

Axioms are true by definition; that's what "axiom" means. (They might also be false, but (if and) only if your system is inconsistent.)

> Case (1) that machine doesn't really halt

This is not a state of affairs: all you know at any given time is that the machine hasn't halted yet (after some specific finite number of steps), or that it has aquired some termination-precluding invariant like a infinite loop (which you can detect only strictly less than all of).

Re:How many real numbers exist? New proof moves closer to an... by rssoconnor on Tuesday July 20, 2021 @01:11PM (#27896418)
Axioms are most certainly not true by definition.

Regardless, the particular technical definition of truth I'm using is Tarski's definition of truth[1]. We don't have to agree whether Tarski's definition is "correct", and I'm happy to qualify my use of the word "truth" here, but I'm referring to a specific technical definition here.

[1] https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Semantic_theory_of_truth#Tarsk...

Re:How many real numbers exist? New proof moves closer to an... by hutzlibu on Friday July 16, 2021 @05:50AM (#27854588)
"the claim that the set of natural numbers has the same size as that of the rational numbers"

Where can I read more about that? Because, both are infinite, but there still should be more rational numbers, than natural numbers?

Re:How many real numbers exist? New proof moves closer to an... by quisnam on Friday July 16, 2021 @06:31AM (#27854775)
Many entry-level real analysis courses will cover cardinality after introducing sets and functions. There's also a short article on Wikipedia. [0]

Your intuition about there being more rational numbers might be based on viewing the rationals as a proper superset of the natural numbers. You might similarly consider that there are more natural numbers than even natural numbers. However, by "renaming" every even number, and that shouldn't change how many there are, to half its value, we obtain the natural numbers. Formally, there exists a bijection between N and 2N, as between N and Q, and this is what mathematicians mean when they say that sets have the same size, or cardinality.

[0]: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Cardinality

Re:How many real numbers exist? New proof moves closer to an... by Someone on Friday July 16, 2021 @02:37PM (#27859617)
To add, for hutzlibu and others like them: as soon as infinite sets (or sequences. See https://plus.maths.org/content/when-things-get-weird-infinit...) are involved math gets counter-intuitive.

In this case, at most one of these two a priori quite reasonable statements can be true:

- if set B is a strict superset of A, B is larger than A.

- if you can map the times in A to the items in B in 1:1 fashion, A and B have the same size.

Giving up the first is deemed less problematic than giving up the second (probably because that means giving up comparing sizes of infinite sets at all, but I’m not familiar enough with that to be sure about that)

Re:How many real numbers exist? New proof moves closer to an... by gwf on Saturday July 17, 2021 @05:24PM (#27868974)

  for a in range(1, Infinity):
      for b in range(a):
          print(a-b, "/" , b+1)
Will print out:

      1/1, 2/1, 1/2, 3/1, 2/2, 1/3, 4/1, 3/2, 2/3, 1/4, ...
Hence, we've just mapped all rationals (with duplicates) to a single linear list. Since any linear list can always be mapped to the naturals (1, 2, 3, ...), they have the same cardinality.

QED

Re:How many real numbers exist? New proof moves closer to an... by TheCondor on Friday July 16, 2021 @08:14AM (#27855474)
The proof is when you can create a bijective function between the sets then they have the same cardinality. The “zip” function can do this between integers and rationals.
Re:How many real numbers exist? New proof moves closer to an... by jari_mustonen on Friday July 16, 2021 @06:15AM (#27854697)
You can count rational numbers and everything countable is the size of infinity as natural numbers.

Google ”counting rational numbers” and ”different sizes of infinity” to learn more.