Well, I can't say much for the tone of the piece, but compare https://fee.org/articles/the-poorest-20-of-americans-are-ric... .

Yikes. This heavily slanted article is tailor made to suit the worldview of the "smug Young Republican" set.

>>The OECD data is particularly flawed because it is based on “income,” which excludes a host of non-cash government benefits and private charity that are abundant in the United States. Examples include but are not limited to:

- Health care provided by Medicaid, free clinics, and the Children’s Health Insurance Program

- Nourishment provided by food stamps, school lunches, school breakfasts, soup kitchens, food pantries, and the Women’s, Infants’ & Children’s program

-Housing and amenities provided through rent subsidies, utility assistance, and homeless shelters

Yes, of course, because no European nation provides these. What an idiotic article.

> Yes, of course, because no European nation provides these. What an idiotic article.

The finding is that average consumption for the bottom 20% of US households exceeds average consumption for the bottom 100% of e.g. Spanish households.

This is a comparison that automatically includes welfare benefits provided on both sides. What do you think is getting left out?

So now it's poor people in America are richer than some poor people in some nations? That seems like a more reasonable assertion, albeit much less meaningful.