Are you sure it wasn't sin (30 pi / 180), because that actually makes sense.
Absolutely terrifying. How did he communicate with other peer mathematicians?
Re:Can 1/3 and 1/3 = 2/6? It seemed so
by Denvercoder9 on Tuesday May 26, 2020 @10:38AM
(#23311695)
I honestly don't know - it was an intro level physics class.
Mathematicians understand how to read definitions of notation.
If all of your trig is fractions of pi, writing pi redundantly everywhere is not useful.
…but that's not a fraction of pi?
30pi is a fraction of pi.
Is that commonly done?
Re:Can 1/3 and 1/3 = 2/6? It seemed so
by renewiltord on Tuesday May 26, 2020 @09:25PM
(#23318445)
It is not. Though it wouldn't be too hard to adapt, I think, if it was noted at the beginning of a text. For it to take, it would have to power some influential result, sort of like how the summation convention in tensor notation works (something that infuriated me as a kid).
I once had a professor that insisted that sin(30) meant sin(30 pi) in radians, with the pi being implicit. Unsurprisingly, it was the worst class I've ever taken.