…but that's not a fraction of pi?
30pi is a fraction of pi.
Is that commonly done?
Re:Can 1/3 and 1/3 = 2/6? It seemed so
by renewiltord on Tuesday May 26, 2020 @09:25PM
(#23318445)
It is not. Though it wouldn't be too hard to adapt, I think, if it was noted at the beginning of a text. For it to take, it would have to power some influential result, sort of like how the summation convention in tensor notation works (something that infuriated me as a kid).
If all of your trig is fractions of pi, writing pi redundantly everywhere is not useful.