p or true => true
> These sales were not made pursuant to a Rule 10b5–1 trading plan.
I'm not an expert in stock trading, but this logic seems very plausible. A Plan does not preclude other arrangements to sell shares
Maybe such a thing does indeed require amending The Plan, but I haven't seen anyone with expertise chime in. I'm just saying that logically, "pre-arranged" does not necessitate "working within Rule 10b5-1"
So if it was pre-arranged but was not following the rules, it doesn't matter that it was pre-arranged, it's still counts as illegal insider trading as-if not pre-arranged.
Reasons being super obvious, since it would be easy to do insider trading in a stealthy way otherwise.
You don't have to be an expert. Practically everyone who isn't rank-and-file gets the dossiers on this nonsense in a public company.
I'm not aware of the details, as I'm just a peon in Back Office, but I do know traders pay attention to not-insider "insider" trading announcements from the SEC (yes, this pretrade information is publicly available from the SEC). I have no idea about non-US rules.