I guess we are misunderstanding each other's point. I just found hermitdev's comment to be misleading (despite being correct), but perhaps it's just my reading of it.

To be fair though, memset() usually IS a fix. As mentioned by the kernel memzero_explicit() docs:

> usually using memset is just fine (!)

-- https://www.kernel.org/doc/htmldocs/kernel-api/API-memzero-e...

A conforming C compiler can't just remove memset() as it pleases. The case that most often requires memzero_explicit() is when zeroing an object after destruction, because the compiler thinks it can statically determine that it's a dead store. It very rarely happens that a compiler elides a memset() used for initialization.

I'm not sure why you seem to think that memset() can just be dropped at will for no reason whatsoever or that it's somehow always undefined behaviour.

A conforming C compiler can remove a memset that has no side effects.

You mean it can remove a memset() that doesn't cause the observable behaviour to change?

For the sake of argument, can you show me some example code where it would be conforming to remove a memset() call? Preferably a realistic example and not a Google'd copypasta. Because it's all too easy to just regurgitate things you heard and think you understood, but no so easy to demonstrate it yourself.

I agree that it would be rare for a memset() used for initialization to be removed, but this is a good recent paper that gives lots of examples of when stores are eliminated in practice:

Dead Store Elimination (Still) Considered Harmful

https://cseweb.ucsd.edu/~klevchen/yjoll-usesec17.pdf