Isn't our democracy built upon "self selected polling" , people who chose to go excesrice their right to vote. Its all meaningless?
Previously you said "any self selected polling is meaningless"
Now you are saying "Self selected polling is meaningful when people who didn't self select had the opportunity to do so" .
Ok. So by that definition the poll I linked, everyone had the opportunity to participate in the debate, theoretically. What makes it meaningless ?
PS: Fixing democracy ect is not interesting to me in this context, I want to focus your claim self-selected = meaningless.
If you want to know more, I recipient looking up the 1936 Literary Digest poll for US President, one of the most famous screwups caused by non-random sampling: https://www.math.upenn.edu/~deturck/m170/wk4/lecture/case1.h...
Perhaps explain how you are defining * opportunity to participate* .
(And yes, governments where there are ad-hoc rationalizations for who gets to vote or where the procedures aren't publicly announced are in fact illegitmate and widely recognized as such.)
(And as a side point, no to the straw poll question - there are certain statistical guarantees on the representativeness of polls as long as they're drawn from a random sample of the public, with debates about how far you can deviate from a random sample and still have results that are useful. Self-selected polls, on the other hand, pretty much mean nothing.)