> Is there proof that they have a tendency of triggering "latent" conditions, instead of generating the conditions?
Personally, I've had panic attacks (originating from paranoia) bought on by historical heavy use - the correlation isn't subtle at all. Did my paranoia drive me to the initial peace associated with the drug? I'd have a hard time arguing otherwise - it really, really helped at first. My life was altered positively days after the previous dosage. If I take it now the situation becomes unbearable in less than 5 seconds. Anecdote disclaimer, as well as not being the same psychoactive drug (but it is psychoactive).
[1]: https://jamanetwork.com/journals/jamapsychiatry/fullarticle/...
Psychosis is literally damaging and the earlier and more violently one is subjected to it the worse their lifetime prognosis will be.
Could it also be the case that people with potential mental illnesses is more likely to try drugs? Therefore being a correlational relationship instead of a causal one?