When you have a preformed ideological conclusion then logic is the first causality in any study.
Probably the opposite of your intended meaning heh
You say, "different populations may have evolved...". You don't present any evidence for this. You just state it as a possibility. It might be the case that god causes the delay in Tibetans. Is it the responsibility of the article to counter this possibility? The article gives a credible reason for the delay in Tibetans and if the reason is correct it reinforces the idea that it is cultural.
I assume the researchers know a lot more about the topic than I do. In my experience if there is a possible objection to a conclusion researchers have made that I can think of when thinking about the topic for a few minutes then I'm the one who is almost certainly wrong.
How much more explicit do you need me to be?
I suspect it appears clear to you only because you share the author's preconceived and possibly subconscious notion.
That is not a non sequitur.
I agree with the rest of your post, but here you seem to be reaching. Are there examples of behavioral/moral differences between human populations that are known to have a genetic basis?
Why would you assume human populations to follow a pattern distinctly different from all the rest of biology?
Are there any behavioral differences known not to have a genetic basis? Yes. When in Southeast Asia, I don't show people the soles of my feet (it's not considered nice, at least in some places). In Europe I have no qualms about showing people the soles of my feet. Behavioral difference. Yet my genes don't change when traveling from A to B.
> Why would you assume human populations to follow a pattern distinctly different from all the rest of biology?
What exactly are you claiming about "the rest of biology"? Are you confusing human populations that look slightly different from each other but belong to the same species with different species of, say, felines?
"...evolved different inbred attitudes..."
This refers to evolved in the sense of genetics. Of course human populations have different patterns of behavior. But the question is whether these patterns are cultural versus being genetic. My response above has to do with the genetic basis of behavior differences.
EDIT: Thousands of years may not be enough time to cause a genetic basis for differences in human behavior. This was the original objection raised by interfixus. The objection does not seem reasonable given the lack of evidence given for said objection in the context of interfixus complaining about the sloppy thinking in the article.
Having said that, whatever the cause of it is, the results might still be something we want to try to address.
In relation to the article, I am certainly not falling into the trap of suggesting anything not really indicated by the data in case.
Personally, I most definitely am.
"In addition, the Tibetan herders who participated in the study had a markedly higher level of rank-reversal aversion than other subjects. This also suggests the trait is cultural"
An all too common kind of sloppy thinking, which generally kills my desire to read any further. No such thing is suggested. The trait may be learned, or it may be completely hardwired, kicking in action between ages six and ten. Different populations may have evolved different inbred attitudes to equality.