1. The 'example' earning of GBP 34k is just below the threshold at which the margin rate switches to 40% (double!)
2. The UK number exlcudes National Insurance payments, whereas the Cali one includes Social Security (the US Equivalent)
3. The UK one does not have Council Tax, but the US one does have State income tax. Whilst council tax is not income based, it does correlate with income, so this the two are more comparable than not.
[UPDATE - looks like my reply crossed in the ether with your update :) when will HN get etherpad commenting ? ;]
I lived in Westminster, which covers most of the west of inner london. These are wealthy areas covering a lot of expensive real estate, including Buckingham Palace, for one.
My council tax was much lower than friends of mine who lived in commuter suburbs of London. The main reason is that wealthy areas like Westminster contain a lot of businesses, who get slugged with council taxes. They also make a lot of income from parking and things like that.
When you fold in lower transport costs for living in 'Zone 1' it actually makes more sense to live close the centre of London than further out. This is even more so when you start to factor in the value of your time lost sitting on the Tube for hours on end.
Not sure how these factors work out for Council regions in richer non-urban areas, but there's enough evidence to disprove correlation between council tax and income.
So pick any particular borough in the UK that you want for the comparison, but then ask 'in this borough, do those on high incomes pay more council tax, on average?' If the answer is 'yes', then that is effectively part of your marginal tax rate, albeit indirect.
Whilst council tax is not income based, it does correlate with income
I don't think that's true. I'm a higher rate taxpayer and I'm in band A, the lowest band, whereas most of the people I know with high council tax bills are retired or otherwise coming to the ends of their career (on not much pay).
That said, council tax isn't relevant here since American homeowners typically pay property taxes as an equivalent (and property taxes tend to be higher than council tax).
But regarding the correlation, I find it very hard to believe that within a borough, those with higher income dont on average pay more council tax, no matter your two exceptions ;) (see my other comment)
In my county, I think my argument stands. Only 6% of the population is 25-35 and 40% is 60+. As a rather work poor area, nearly all of the expensive houses are owned by people who no longer work :-) This is life oop North!
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Flat_tax
You can count me into the people who support flat tax rates, if for no other reason to stop the pointless millions of hours of productive time wasted trying to rort the system. While people will always cheat, if all income is taxed at a flat rate, at the source, then the incentive to spend money on tax accountants falls.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/X_tax http://www.princeton.edu/~ceps/workingpapers/93bradford.pdf
A flat tax is more fair than a progressive one. But it would be more fair with a head-tax aka. poll-tax. Everyone pays the same amount.
How would we define fair here? Both of the above options seem somewhat fair: everyone contributes the same amount, or everyone contributes the same percentage of income. Or a third standard for fairness could be that the benefit you get from government programs is equal to what you pay in taxes.
I don't even know which of these I think is best (let alone a hope of ever changing anything). Perhaps the best way to cash out "fair" in this case would be to start with some assumptions about what taxes are supposed to do; eg solve coordination problems, support disadvantaged people, etc; and see what can be derived.
http://upload.wikimedia.org/wikipedia/commons/2/23/UK_tax_NI... (or if your browser won't do SVG, this is almost the same: http://www.reviewmylife.co.uk/data/2008/0901/percentage-of-i...)
It's funny that the UK - being European - has a reputation for high taxes and "socialism." There's a lot I don't like about the UK but the taxes are mostly fair (it's the rules for ancillary tax issues that are messed up). The taxes there even include emergency medical expenses.
Mr. Californian earning $50k would be at ~42% on the main post's graph. Mr. Brit earning £34k (roughly equivalent) would be ~26% on the UK graph (or even less if he were self employed!). Hmm.. perhaps sky high gas taxes and 17.5% VAT are a little more bearable for me now.. :-)
[Note: I ballsed up in that last paragraph. The CA chart was marginal, not total like the UK graph. The UK marginal rate at £34k would be 20% for income tax (http://www.hmrc.gov.uk/rates/it.htm), 11% for NICs. So 31% vs 42%. However, at £35k the marginal rate would be 40% + 11% NIC == 51%. At £40k, however, the marginal rate would be 40% + 1% NIC == 41%. Who said this was easy??]