No, it doesn't.
It says that there is a correlation between being a married woman with offspring and a lower expected salary.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Correlation_does_not_imply_cau...
Furthermore, if you even had read the article you would've noticed the bit where it says "Weinberg says that the data cannot identify or tease apart factors that might explain why married women with children earn less — among the possibilities"
Thanks for suggesting the correction, and can I in turn suggest avoiding the phrase "if you had even read the article" in future. I'm sure you intended it to reinforce your remark, but I believe it actually tends to devalue any point it accompanies.
In the first the 'even' appears to mean "even in this very article, you may find this", where as in the second it appears to mean "if you at least put in the effort to read this article".
Another is that female primary caregivers, more so than their male counterparts, lose interest in focusing on work after they have a child, and thus fall into the rut of a lower performing employee that inevitably gets paid less.
I don't know which it is. Are their studies that try to find out?
This study was looking at pay one year after receipt of PhD. I'd expect that it would usually take longer for people to start being separated by performance in the types of jobs that PhDs typically get.
In other words that there is systematic bias against married women with children, not against all married caregivers with children.
The idea that men can be a primary caregiver still blows minds.
edit: s/leads to/correlates with/ which I agree is an important nuance but doesn't change my point.