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Re:A previously unnoticed property of prime numbers by ajross on Monday March 14, 2016 @12:34PM (#11283787)
Isn't it sort of a definitional thing about conjectures that they stop being interesting when proven false?
Re:A previously unnoticed property of prime numbers by indiv0 on Monday March 14, 2016 @01:34PM (#11284146)
I think the parent is saying that the statement:

    Looking at prime numbers written in base 3 — in which roughly half the primes end in 1 and half end in 2 — he found that among primes smaller than 1,000, a prime ending in 1 is more than twice as likely to be followed by a prime ending in 2 than by another prime ending in 1
is not interesting (as it seems to be just numerology), UNLESS the authors' conjecture is also true (that the statement also holds for bases > 2).
Re:A previously unnoticed property of prime numbers by kafkaesq on Monday March 14, 2016 @02:35PM (#11284578)
The important part is that the authors (and several others) have verified the statistics out to a few hundred billion primes -- and that while the bias does start to drop out, it does so "very slowly." That's what makes this result not "numerology."
Re:A previously unnoticed property of prime numbers by monochromatic on Monday March 14, 2016 @11:42PM (#11287296)
No, it would be interesting even if it only happened in one base. It's still unexpected.
Re:A previously unnoticed property of prime numbers by baddox on Monday March 14, 2016 @05:56PM (#11285871)
It's interesting to me.
Re:A previously unnoticed property of prime numbers by adrianN on Monday March 14, 2016 @05:36PM (#11285763)
P!=NP would still be interesting even if it were proven false.
Re:A previously unnoticed property of prime numbers by kafkaesq on Monday March 14, 2016 @02:28PM (#11284540)
They might come down a notch, but "failed" conjectures can still be quite interesting, in many ways:

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Mertens_conjecture

Re:A previously unnoticed property of prime numbers by hiddencost on Monday March 14, 2016 @02:28PM (#11284542)
"not proven true" is not the same as "proven false"

they made an observation and a conjecture. If the conjecture is proven false, it's obvious uninteresting. If the conjecture isn't proven either way, it could be argued that it's just apophenia. I'm not sure I agree, but it's not an unreasonable stance.