Re:Why is e^(pi i) = -1?
by jrp on Friday October 30, 2009 @11:32AM
(#912166)
I like Feynman's description, where he actually used 10^x first, just noting that 10^x for small real x was 1 + ln(10)*x (approximating from the derivative), assuming that this worked for small complex values too, and then extended to larger values by squaring.
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