Re:Why is e^(pi i) = -1?
by rottencupcakes on Friday October 30, 2009 @10:24AM
(#912042)
We verify in a quick Google search:
http://www.google.com/search?hl=en&safe=off&q=sin(pi...
that sin(pi) = 0.
Re:Why is e^(pi i) = -1?
by travisjeffery on Friday October 30, 2009 @10:27AM
(#912048)
The formula is:
e^(ix) = cos(x) - i sin(x)
Since sin(π) == 0, i * 0 == 0 so you have cos(π) left which is -1.
So in sum:
e^(i π) = cos(π) - i sin(π) == -1 - 0 == -1
If you draw a Sine graph, you will see that sin(x) is zero at 0, pi, 2*pi, ...
If you draw a cosine graph you will see that it is -1 at pi. Therefore in the above sum the sine part just falls away.
It is easy to see that the above is true when you recall that cosine(theta) = adjacent side/(hypotenuse). Since pi=180 degrees, adjacent will be -1 hypotenuse 1 and opposite side 0.
Why does cos(pi) + i sin(pi) == -1 ??
Why does i disappear in this?
Edit: Thanks to the replies below.