Re:Conway's Proof Of The Free Will Theorem
by danielrm26 on Monday August 11, 2014 @01:26AM
(#8162055)
I think he's asserting that if experimenters have free will, then particles do, which means we do as well.
This isn't a proof of particles having free will. That's an intermediary step to saying we have it as well, and therefore you can start with a step that says we do.
This isn't a proof of particles having free will. That's an intermediary step to saying we have it as well, and therefore you can start with a step that says we do.