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Re:Conway's Proof Of The Free Will Theorem by pjungwir on Monday August 11, 2014 @01:16AM (#8162027)
> it uses the argument's conclusion as one of its premises.

His theorem doesn't assert free will. It asserts that if experimenters have free will, then particles have free will. So if it's wrong, then it's not for the reason you give.

Re:Conway's Proof Of The Free Will Theorem by danielrm26 on Monday August 11, 2014 @01:26AM (#8162055)
I think he's asserting that if experimenters have free will, then particles do, which means we do as well.

This isn't a proof of particles having free will. That's an intermediary step to saying we have it as well, and therefore you can start with a step that says we do.

Re:Conway's Proof Of The Free Will Theorem by jamesaguilar on Monday August 11, 2014 @01:49AM (#8162106)
You need to read it again. The person you're replying to has correctly stated what is shown.