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Re:Gravity waves from Big Bang detected by lutusp on Wednesday March 19, 2014 @05:55AM (#7427567)
> p-values don't assume a normal distribution.

No, not unless a p-value is expressed in terms of sigma as in this case and similar ones. In this case, and commonly in experimental physics, there's a relationship between n-sigma (usually 3σ or 5σ in different circumstances) and how a p-value is acquired from a sigma expression. The p-value is acquired from a sigma value like this:

http://i.imgur.com/pcjr6cN.gif

My point? In experimental physics there's a connection between (a) an expression including an integer and "sigma", (b) a resulting, widely quoted numerical value, and (c) the method for converting one to the other, using a Gaussian distribution as shown.

http://physicsbuzz.physicscentral.com/2012/07/does-5-sigma-d...

Quote: "But what does a 5-sigma result mean, and why do particle physicists use this as a benchmark for discoveries?

To answer these questions, we'll have to look at one of the statistician's oldest friends and C-student's worst enemies: the normal distribution or bell curve."

Couldn't have said it better myself.

> The only way that the Normal distribution comes into play is that physicists are measuring the smallness of their p-values by stating a number of standard deviations from the Normal mean that would have the same p-value.

Hmm. Yes, that's right. That's why I replied as I did in my original post.

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