> The post WW2 area had less income inequality because the world economy had been torn apart.
If that was true, then as the economy recovered, income inequality would have increased. But it didn't, it continued to decrease in the USA and UK until about 1980, when it started rising again.
I feel that it is unlikely to be a coincidence that the trend changed around the same time Thatcher and Reagan were elected.
> We are now just going back to pre WW1 rates - ie basically reaching the point where we were before 2 world wars destroyed so much wealth.
There was a vast net increase in wealth between 1914 and 1945.
It's up to you what you care about. Some people find the arguments in https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/The_Spirit_Level:_Why_More_Equ... persuasive.
> The post WW2 area had less income inequality because the world economy had been torn apart.
If that was true, then as the economy recovered, income inequality would have increased. But it didn't, it continued to decrease in the USA and UK until about 1980, when it started rising again.
I feel that it is unlikely to be a coincidence that the trend changed around the same time Thatcher and Reagan were elected.
> We are now just going back to pre WW1 rates - ie basically reaching the point where we were before 2 world wars destroyed so much wealth.
There was a vast net increase in wealth between 1914 and 1945.