The oldest "0" in India for which one can assign a definite date

Re:The oldest "0" in India for which one can assign a defini... by peter303 on Friday May 24, 2013 @12:29PM (#5763873)

"New numbers" are invented to complete a group for a particular arithmetic operation. Zero is not necessary the addition operation because all cardinals one and above suffice. Zero is created for the subtraction operation of a cardinal with itself.

There were empty place holders signs in place-number systems of Babylonia and ancent China that function like our zero numeral. But this placeholder did not enter arithmetic operations. So it is not considered the "modern" zero.

Ditto creating negative numbers for cmpleting the subtraction operation group. Ratios for cardinal division. Real numbers for some ratios that are not cardinals. Infinity for zero divisors. Irrationals for roots of cardinals. Imaginaries for roots of negatives. Infinitesmals in differentiation and integration. And so on ...

At some point in medevial times each of these new numbers were considered the work of the Devil because they did not have concrete existance in the physical world. Later on accountants showed how zero & negative numbers were usefule for business. And physicists showed how these new numbers could predict the physical world.

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Re:The oldest "0" in India for which one can assign a defini... by phaemon on Friday May 24, 2013 @01:33PM (#5764248)

>At some point in medevial times each of these new numbers were considered the work of the Devil because they did not have concrete existance in the physical world.

Really? Do you have a cite for this? It sounds made up.

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Re:The oldest "0" in India for which one can assign a defini... by oz on Friday May 24, 2013 @02:38PM (#5764580)

I can't speak for math, but I know that a few centuries ago, certain musical notes were regarded as 'The Devil's Music':

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Tritone#Historical_uses http://news.bbc.co.uk/2/hi/uk_news/magazine/4952646.stm

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Re:The oldest "0" in India for which one can assign a defini... by foldr on Friday May 24, 2013 @11:10PM (#5766220)

Well, both of those articles explain that this was just perceived as a dissonant interval which could be used a a musical representation of the Devil. The interval was likely avoided for essentially aesthetic musical reasons, and the Wikipedia article says that "...suggestions that singers were excommunicated or otherwise punished by the Church for invoking this interval are likely fanciful." Unfortunately the BBC article seems to be light on facts and heavy on stereotypes of medieval monks as ignorant religious fundamentalists.

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Re:The oldest "0" in India for which one can assign a defini... by fusiongyro on Friday May 24, 2013 @03:21PM (#5764766)

Especially since under neoplatonic thought lots of things are considered more real because they lack physical existence.

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Re:The oldest "0" in India for which one can assign a defini... by foldr on Friday May 24, 2013 @10:54PM (#5766192)

I wonder if this is maybe a confused reference to the privation theory of evil? In Aristotelean scholastic theology evil is simply a lack of being (since goodness is one of the transcendental properties of being), and so there's a connection between nothingness and evil.

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Re:The oldest "0" in India for which one can assign a defini... by fusiongyro on Saturday May 25, 2013 @01:13AM (#5766442)

I think ignorance is probably a simpler explanation, but thanks for bringing that up, I am not well-versed in medieval theology.

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