Which would make my sentence: It's an accepted core tenet of all common law countries and many of the others. Well, I suppose that's still true! But I don't think the tie to common law is stronger than the one to the US; it's an almost universal principle.

My point is that it's a core tenet of the common law system, not a core tenet of democracy. Allowing your citizens to vote does not automatically mean that they have a presumption of innocence. It just means that they can vote.