Re:Can rotation solve the Hubble Puzzle?
by voidUpdate on Tuesday April 22, 2025 @10:30AM
(#43762666)
yes but if x is finite, any f(x) will still be finite. So the universe has either always been finite, or always been infinite, and given that it started out being very small in a big bang, it would imply the former
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> yes but if x is finite, any f(x) will still be finite.
The number line is not finite, even though every value on it is. The universe may be like the number line.
> and given that it started out being very small in a big bang, it would imply the former
The universe started out denser, which is not quite the same as "small" when talking about infinities. The currently visible universe gets both things at the same time, but only because the visible bit is finite.
Apply f(x) = x * 1e-60 to the number line, and things which were previously spaced out every integer, are now much more densely packed, but the number line as a whole is still the same size — infinite.
not if x is the set of all Real numbers. All points could have been infinitely close to each other at the big bang, and the universe could still have been infinite in size.
Re:Can rotation solve the Hubble Puzzle?
by AnimalMuppet on Tuesday April 22, 2025 @12:20PM
(#43763825)
f(x) = tan(x)
f(x) = 1/(1-x)
So if x is finite, f(x) can still be infinite.