2. Because the math works out better
If it turns out that things that depend on prime numbers work in all cases except for 1, you might as well define 1 not to be a prime number.
Many proofs depend on the unique factorization of primes, many directly and many many more indirectly. It is a trivial mechanical modification to them to deal with the non-uniqueness of a prime factorization if you admit 1 as a prime number by explicitly taking that case and saying it doesn't affect this case. So in that sense, no, it's not important.
Except... you've now taken numerous proofs and made them longer... and for what? There's no didactic advantage. There's no proof that is made easier by letting 1 be prime. What's the advantage of adding all these special cases? None.
And that's the real reason. In the end, "by definition" is the only justification, and the reason we choose the definition is that it works the best. Unlike 0 to the power of 0 where there's at least a bit of argument to be had (though the overwhelming preponderance is for it to be 1), there's no reason to put 1 in the set of prime numbers. Even if you don't personally consider it a "lot" of evidence, it's still entirely one sided.
In the case of prime numbers I believe you cited one of the best reasons of leaving 1 out of the set. If someone needs a name for "the number one and all prime numbers", they can define it.
e.g. 6 can be shown as
xxxxxx
but also as xxx
---
xxx
or x|x
x|x
x|x
Whereas a prime like 5 doesn't have this symmetrical layout.
Since 1 does have this kind of symmetry it belongs more with the non-primes.
I've always been inclined to think 1x = x, and think of one as fundamental. But the pattern shows that rather than 1x being fundamental, rather there is the issue of x exists or x doesn't exist. x doesn't exist => 0. I wonder if 1*x = x is really a distraction away from a better type of thinking around existence.
Also, I've always been wary of the part of the rule that says that 1 is not a prime number. Why is that?.