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Re:What is the history of the use of "foo" and "bar" in sour... by thaumasiotes on Saturday October 05, 2024 @06:46PM (#41753470)
> distinctly pronounced from each other

This isn't so much of an advantage for "bar" and "baz". Those sound pretty distinct to Americans, now, but "r" -> "z" is a known type of sound change, which implies that for some people they'll sound the same. "R" -> "s" is attested in Latin, presumably because "z" wasn't an option. (Latin fricatives don't have voicing distinctions.)

For an only slightly different current example, the second consonants in "virile" and "vision" are perceived as distinct in American English, but identical in Mandarin Chinese, which is why the sound is spelled as "r" in Hanyu Pinyin and as "j" in Wade-Giles.

Re:What is the history of the use of "foo" and "bar" in sour... by maccard on Monday October 07, 2024 @04:09PM (#41770427)
Show me a phrase and I'll show you a language it doesn't work in.
Re:What is the history of the use of "foo" and "bar" in sour... by thaumasiotes on Monday October 07, 2024 @04:39PM (#41770781)
Is there a language that identifies "ta" and "pa"?