I just think "100% of surplus value" is a wrong definition, so using that definition to argue that "in a very literal sense, pay can never be enough" is a very flawed argument.

I don't think I need to offer my own definition to claim that, do I? They later said it's subjective, which seems to favor my claim.

Does that clear things up? Is there a reason you thought I was trying to give a definition, and failing? Is there something wrong with my argument?