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Re:The game theory of seduction and marriage with Jane Austen by giantg2 on Sunday February 18, 2024 @07:48PM (#39425111)
How can it be 3:1? Seems the male/female breakdown for SF is about 1.1:1. There are some other factors, but I still don't see how it can be anywhere close to 3:1.

https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Demographics_of_San_Francisc...

Re:The game theory of seduction and marriage with Jane Austen by reducesuffering on Tuesday February 20, 2024 @11:17AM (#39443115)
Look at the male surplus until 60. Then remember that 80% of those are taken. And that the 1.1 : 1 ratio includes the huge 70+ women surplus.

I could believe a 2:1 single ratio for ages 20 - 60

Re:The game theory of seduction and marriage with Jane Austen by anamexis on Tuesday February 20, 2024 @02:58PM (#39446115)
Wouldn't 80% of males also be taken?
Re:The game theory of seduction and marriage with Jane Austen by reducesuffering on Tuesday February 20, 2024 @03:20PM (#39446373)
No, the surplus skews it. If there's 120 males and 100 females for an age bracket like 30 - 40, and 80 of them are couples (assuming hetero), that leaves 40 males for 20 females as the rest, 2:1 single ratio. Men are born like 1.05 : 1 so early years are male-surplus and elderly are female-surplus because men die quicker. Then you also have the conundrum where males 20 - 50 are competing for women 20 - 35, so market dynamics aren't always 1 to 1 age-wise.