Re:On Leibniz Notation
by shunyaekam on Saturday January 20, 2024 @04:57AM
(#39066054)
The derivative of 1 with respect to x is zero, since the derivative of any constant function is zero.
So you must be saying that the derivative of 1/f(x) with respect to x is zero for any f(x), where f is a differentiable function, with non-vanishing derivative near x (for it to be defined in the first place).
That doesn't make any sense.
Please don't respond to this. It's getting absurd.
So you must be saying that the derivative of 1/f(x) with respect to x is zero for any f(x), where f is a differentiable function, with non-vanishing derivative near x (for it to be defined in the first place).
That doesn't make any sense.
Please don't respond to this. It's getting absurd.